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Conceptual understanding of all the topics is the most important part of preparation for an examination. CBSE Curriculum based Objective Questions from Class-VI to XII provide an excellent option to test your basic concepts.
The following Quiz consists of questions of Indian Polity based on NCERT textbooks. Aspirants may practice these questions to have a revision of the fundamental concepts of the subject.
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- Answered
- Review
- Question 1 of 144
1. Question
Category: NCERTAaj Akhan Waris Shah Nun a Punjabi poetry was written by?
Correct“Ajj Aakhaan Waris Shah Nu” is a hauntingly powerful Punjabi poem written by Amrita Pritam in 1947, in the aftermath of the Partition of India. It is a poetic cry of anguish, addressed to the 18th-century Sufi poet Waris Shah, who famously penned the tragic love story of Heer-Ranjha.
The poem became a symbol of Partition literature, capturing the trauma of divided Punjab.
Incorrect“Ajj Aakhaan Waris Shah Nu” is a hauntingly powerful Punjabi poem written by Amrita Pritam in 1947, in the aftermath of the Partition of India. It is a poetic cry of anguish, addressed to the 18th-century Sufi poet Waris Shah, who famously penned the tragic love story of Heer-Ranjha.
The poem became a symbol of Partition literature, capturing the trauma of divided Punjab.
- Question 2 of 144
2. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements Princely States during partition:
1. The British Indian Provinces were directly under the control of the British government.
2. Princely States covered half of the land area of the British Indian Empire, and one out of four Indians lived under princely rule.
Choose the correct Statement using the code given below.CorrectPrincely States covered one-third of the land area of the British Indian Empire and one out of four Indians lived under princely rule.
IncorrectPrincely States covered one-third of the land area of the British Indian Empire and one out of four Indians lived under princely rule.
- Question 3 of 144
3. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements about Hyderabad.
1. Hyderabad, the largest of the Princely States was surrounded entirely by Indian territory.
2. The Nizam wanted an independent status for Hyderabad, and he entered into the Standstill Agreement with India.
Choose the correct Statement using the code given below.CorrectBoth are correct.
IncorrectBoth are correct.
- Question 4 of 144
4. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements about the Reorganisation of States:
1. During colonial rule, the state boundaries were drawn either on administrative convenience or simply coincided with the territories annexed by the British government.
2. Nagpur session of Congress in 1920 the linguistic principle was recognised as the basis of the reorganisation of the Indian National Congress party itself.
Choose the correct Statement using the code given below:CorrectDuring colonial rule, the state boundaries were drawn either on administrative convenience or simply coincided with the territories annexed by the British government or the territories ruled by the princely powers. However, our national movement had rejected these divisions as artificial and had promised the linguistic principle as the basis of formation of states.
IncorrectDuring colonial rule, the state boundaries were drawn either on administrative convenience or simply coincided with the territories annexed by the British government or the territories ruled by the princely powers. However, our national movement had rejected these divisions as artificial and had promised the linguistic principle as the basis of formation of states.
- Question 5 of 144
5. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements:
1. Potti Sriramulu, a Congress leader went on an indefinite fast that led to his death after 56 days for reorganisation of Andhra Pradesh.
2. Prime Minister announced the formation of a separate Andhra state in December 1956.
Choose the correct Statement using the code given below:CorrectKey Events Leading to Andhra Pradesh’s Formation:
- 1952: Potti Sreeramulu, a Gandhian activist, began a fast-unto-death demanding a separate state for Telugu-speaking people. His death on 15 December 1952 sparked widespread protests.
- 1953: In response to public pressure, the Government of India created the Andhra State on 1 October 1953, carved out of the Telugu-speaking areas of the Madras Presidency. Its capital was Kurnool, and T. Prakasam became its first Chief Minister.
- 1956: The States Reorganisation Act came into effect on 1 November 1956, merging Andhra State with the Telugu-speaking districts of Hyderabad State (mainly Telangana) to form the unified state of Andhra Pradesh, with Hyderabad as its capital.
This was India’s first state formed on a linguistic basis, setting the stage for future reorganizations across the country.
IncorrectKey Events Leading to Andhra Pradesh’s Formation:
- 1952: Potti Sreeramulu, a Gandhian activist, began a fast-unto-death demanding a separate state for Telugu-speaking people. His death on 15 December 1952 sparked widespread protests.
- 1953: In response to public pressure, the Government of India created the Andhra State on 1 October 1953, carved out of the Telugu-speaking areas of the Madras Presidency. Its capital was Kurnool, and T. Prakasam became its first Chief Minister.
- 1956: The States Reorganisation Act came into effect on 1 November 1956, merging Andhra State with the Telugu-speaking districts of Hyderabad State (mainly Telangana) to form the unified state of Andhra Pradesh, with Hyderabad as its capital.
This was India’s first state formed on a linguistic basis, setting the stage for future reorganizations across the country.
- Question 6 of 144
6. Question
Category: NCERTHe was a freedom fighter and founding President of the Congress Socialist Party; active in peasants’ movement; a scholar of Buddhism; after independence he led the Socialist Party and later the Praja Socialist Party.
The above paragraph is talking about?CorrectAcharya Narendra Dev (1889–1956) was a founding leader of the Congress Socialist Party (1934), advocating democratic socialism rooted in non-violence and moral philosophy.
Remembered by Jawaharlal Nehru as “a man of rare distinction… rare in spirit, rare in mind and intellect.”
IncorrectAcharya Narendra Dev (1889–1956) was a founding leader of the Congress Socialist Party (1934), advocating democratic socialism rooted in non-violence and moral philosophy.
Remembered by Jawaharlal Nehru as “a man of rare distinction… rare in spirit, rare in mind and intellect.”
- Question 7 of 144
7. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements about BR Ambedkar:
- He was the founder of Independent Labour Party.
- He was Member of Viceroy’s Executive Council during the Second World War.
Choose the correct Statement using the code given below:
CorrectHe was the founder of Independent Labour Party; later founded the Scheduled Castes Federation and planned the formation of the Republican Party of India.
He was a member of Viceroy’s Executive Council during the Second World War; Chairman, Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly; Minister in Nehru’s first cabinet after independence; resigned in 1951 due to differences over the Hindu Code Bill; adopted Buddhism in 1956, with thousands of followers.
IncorrectHe was the founder of Independent Labour Party; later founded the Scheduled Castes Federation and planned the formation of the Republican Party of India.
He was a member of Viceroy’s Executive Council during the Second World War; Chairman, Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly; Minister in Nehru’s first cabinet after independence; resigned in 1951 due to differences over the Hindu Code Bill; adopted Buddhism in 1956, with thousands of followers.
- Question 8 of 144
8. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements about the Communist Party of India:
1. A. K. Gopalan, and P. Sundarraya were among the notable leaders of the CPI.
2. The Party went through a major split in 1964 following the ideological rift between Soviet Union and China.
Choose the correct Statement using the code given below:CorrectSino-Indian War (1962): The war intensified internal tensions. Leaders like S.A. Dange supported the Indian government, while others criticized it, leading to accusations of being “pro-China.”
Sino-Soviet Split: CPI leaders were divided over allegiance—some supported the Soviet Union’s moderate line, while others leaned toward China’s revolutionary stance.
The pro-Soviet faction remained as the CPI, while the opponents formed the CPI(M). Key CPI(M) leaders included E.M.S. Namboodiripad, Jyoti Basu, P. Sundarayya, and B.T. Ranadive. CPI(M) became a dominant force in states like Kerala, West Bengal, and Tripura.
IncorrectSino-Indian War (1962): The war intensified internal tensions. Leaders like S.A. Dange supported the Indian government, while others criticized it, leading to accusations of being “pro-China.”
Sino-Soviet Split: CPI leaders were divided over allegiance—some supported the Soviet Union’s moderate line, while others leaned toward China’s revolutionary stance.
The pro-Soviet faction remained as the CPI, while the opponents formed the CPI(M). Key CPI(M) leaders included E.M.S. Namboodiripad, Jyoti Basu, P. Sundarayya, and B.T. Ranadive. CPI(M) became a dominant force in states like Kerala, West Bengal, and Tripura.
- Question 9 of 144
9. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements about the Bharatiya Jana Sangh:
1. The party called for a reunion of India and Pakistan in Akhand Bharat.
2. The party was a consistent advocate of India developing nuclear weapons especially after China carried out its atomic tests in 1964.
Choose the incorrect Statement using the code given below:CorrectBoth are correct.
IncorrectBoth are correct.
- Question 10 of 144
10. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements about the Swatantra Party:
1. Swatantra Party was formed in August 1959 after the Nagpur resolution of the Congress
2. The Swatantra Party wanted the government to be more involved in controlling the economy.
Choose the correct Statement using the code given below:CorrectThe Swatantra Party, founded on 4 June 1959 by C. Rajagopalachari and other prominent leaders like Minoo Masani and N.G. Ranga, emerged as a reaction to the socialist tilt of the Indian National Congress under Jawaharlal Nehru, particularly after the Avadi and Nagpur Resolutions that emphasized state control over the economy.
It joined the Grand Alliance in 1971 to oppose Indira Gandhi but suffered electoral setbacks. After Rajaji’s death in 1972, the party declined and eventually merged into the Bharatiya Lok Dal in 1974.
The Swatantra Party’s 21-point Manifesto, crafted under the leadership of C. Rajagopalachari in 1959, laid out a bold liberal alternative to the socialist policies of the Indian National Congress.
The Swatantra Party was against land ceilings in agriculture and opposed cooperative farming and state trading. It was also opposed to the progressive tax regime and demanded dismantling of the licensing regime. It was critical of the policy of non-alignment and maintaining friendly relations with the Soviet Union and advocated closer ties with the United States.
IncorrectThe Swatantra Party, founded on 4 June 1959 by C. Rajagopalachari and other prominent leaders like Minoo Masani and N.G. Ranga, emerged as a reaction to the socialist tilt of the Indian National Congress under Jawaharlal Nehru, particularly after the Avadi and Nagpur Resolutions that emphasized state control over the economy.
It joined the Grand Alliance in 1971 to oppose Indira Gandhi but suffered electoral setbacks. After Rajaji’s death in 1972, the party declined and eventually merged into the Bharatiya Lok Dal in 1974.
The Swatantra Party’s 21-point Manifesto, crafted under the leadership of C. Rajagopalachari in 1959, laid out a bold liberal alternative to the socialist policies of the Indian National Congress.
The Swatantra Party was against land ceilings in agriculture and opposed cooperative farming and state trading. It was also opposed to the progressive tax regime and demanded dismantling of the licensing regime. It was critical of the policy of non-alignment and maintaining friendly relations with the Soviet Union and advocated closer ties with the United States.
- Question 11 of 144
11. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements about Shyama Prasad Mukherjee:
1. He was leader of Hindu Mahasabha and founder of Bharatiya Jana Sangh.2. He was the Minister in Nehru’s first cabinet after independence and Member of Constituent Assembly.
Choose the correct Statement using the code given below:
CorrectInitially associated with the Indian National Congress, he later joined the Hindu Mahasabha, becoming its president (1943–1946).
He served as India’s first Minister for Industry and Supply in Nehru’s cabinet (1947–1950), but resigned over the Liaquat–Nehru Pact, citing concerns over minority rights in Pakistan.
In 1953, he entered Jammu and Kashmir without a permit, protesting Article 370 and the state’s special status. He was arrested and died in custody under mysterious circumstances.
IncorrectInitially associated with the Indian National Congress, he later joined the Hindu Mahasabha, becoming its president (1943–1946).
He served as India’s first Minister for Industry and Supply in Nehru’s cabinet (1947–1950), but resigned over the Liaquat–Nehru Pact, citing concerns over minority rights in Pakistan.
In 1953, he entered Jammu and Kashmir without a permit, protesting Article 370 and the state’s special status. He was arrested and died in custody under mysterious circumstances.
- Question 12 of 144
12. Question
Category: NCERTWhich of these statements about the Bombay Plan is incorrect?
CorrectThe Bombay Plan was a landmark economic blueprint drafted in 1944 by eight leading Indian industrialists—including J.R.D. Tata, G.D. Birla, Ardeshir Dalal, and John Matthai—during British colonial rule. Its full title was “A Brief Memorandum Outlining a Plan of Economic Development for India.”
Though never officially adopted, the Bombay Plan influenced India’s early Five-Year Plans, especially the First Plan (1951–56). It’s often seen as a bridge between capitalist pragmatism and socialist planning and a rare moment when industrialists voluntarily called for state-led development.
IncorrectThe Bombay Plan was a landmark economic blueprint drafted in 1944 by eight leading Indian industrialists—including J.R.D. Tata, G.D. Birla, Ardeshir Dalal, and John Matthai—during British colonial rule. Its full title was “A Brief Memorandum Outlining a Plan of Economic Development for India.”
Though never officially adopted, the Bombay Plan influenced India’s early Five-Year Plans, especially the First Plan (1951–56). It’s often seen as a bridge between capitalist pragmatism and socialist planning and a rare moment when industrialists voluntarily called for state-led development.
- Question 13 of 144
13. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements
1. The Soviet Union supported India during the conflict.
2. For the first time, a no-confidence motion against Nehru government was moved and debated in the Lok Sabha after Chinese war.
Choose the correct Statement using the code given below:CorrectThe Soviet Union remained neutral during the conflict.
IncorrectThe Soviet Union remained neutral during the conflict.
- Question 14 of 144
14. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements about India’s nuclear policy:
1. Nehru was in support of nuclear weapons.
2. India always considered the NPT as discriminatory and had sign it.
Choose the correct Statement using the code given below:CorrectNehru was against nuclear weapons. He pleaded with the superpowers for comprehensive nuclear disarmament. When Communist China conducted nuclear tests in October 1964, the five nuclear weapon powers, the US, USSR, UK, France, and China (Taiwan then represented China) – also the five Permanent Members of the UN Security Council – tried to impose the Nuclear Non-proliferation Treaty (NPT) of 1968 on the rest of the world.
IncorrectNehru was against nuclear weapons. He pleaded with the superpowers for comprehensive nuclear disarmament. When Communist China conducted nuclear tests in October 1964, the five nuclear weapon powers, the US, USSR, UK, France, and China (Taiwan then represented China) – also the five Permanent Members of the UN Security Council – tried to impose the Nuclear Non-proliferation Treaty (NPT) of 1968 on the rest of the world.
- Question 15 of 144
15. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements:
1. India supported the indefinite extension of the NPT in 1995 but refused to sign the Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty (CTBT).
2. India conducted a series of nuclear tests in May 1991, demonstrating its capacity to use nuclear energy for military purposes.Choose the correct Statement using the code given below:
CorrectIndia has opposed the international treaties aimed at non-proliferation since they were selectively applicable to the non-nuclear powers and legitimised the monopoly of the five nuclear weapons powers. India’s nuclear doctrine of credible minimum nuclear deterrence professes “no first use” and reiterates India’s commitment to global, verifiable and non-discriminatory nuclear disarmament leading to a nuclear weapon’s free world.
IncorrectIndia has opposed the international treaties aimed at non-proliferation since they were selectively applicable to the non-nuclear powers and legitimised the monopoly of the five nuclear weapons powers. India’s nuclear doctrine of credible minimum nuclear deterrence professes “no first use” and reiterates India’s commitment to global, verifiable and non-discriminatory nuclear disarmament leading to a nuclear weapon’s free world.
- Question 16 of 144
16. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements about V.V.Giri:
1. He was president of India from 1969 to 1974 and Congress worker and labour leader from Andhra Pradesh.2. He was Indian High Commissioner to Ceylon.
Choose the incorrect Statement using the code given below:CorrectIndian High Commissioner to Ceylon (Sri Lanka) Labour Minister in Union cabinet; Governor of U.P., Kerala, Mysore (Karnataka); Vice-President (1967-1969) and acting President after the death of President Zakir Hussain; resigned and contested presidential election as independent candidate; received support from Indira Gandhi for his election as President.
IncorrectIndian High Commissioner to Ceylon (Sri Lanka) Labour Minister in Union cabinet; Governor of U.P., Kerala, Mysore (Karnataka); Vice-President (1967-1969) and acting President after the death of President Zakir Hussain; resigned and contested presidential election as independent candidate; received support from Indira Gandhi for his election as President.
- Question 17 of 144
17. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements:
1. Indira Gandhi supported the demand that the government should abolish privy purses.
2. Morarji Desai supported the demand to abolish privy purses.
Choose the correct Statement using the code given below:CorrectHereditary privileges were not consonant with the principles of equality and social and economic justice laid down in the Constitution of India.
Nehru had expressed his dissatisfaction over the matter time and again.
Following the 1967 elections, Indira Gandhi supported the demand that the government should abolish privy purses. It was abolished in 1971 through the 26th Amendment to the Constitution of India.
Morarji Desai, however, called the move morally wrong and amounting to a ‘breach of faith with the princes’.
While a few rulers accepted the change quietly, others were vocal in their opposition. Some even entered politics to protect their interests or to oppose the Congress government. For instance, Maharani Gayatri Devi of Jaipur became a prominent political figure and critic of Indira Gandhi’s policies. Interestingly, the public sentiment largely favored the abolition.
IncorrectHereditary privileges were not consonant with the principles of equality and social and economic justice laid down in the Constitution of India.
Nehru had expressed his dissatisfaction over the matter time and again.
Following the 1967 elections, Indira Gandhi supported the demand that the government should abolish privy purses. It was abolished in 1971 through the 26th Amendment to the Constitution of India.
Morarji Desai, however, called the move morally wrong and amounting to a ‘breach of faith with the princes’.
While a few rulers accepted the change quietly, others were vocal in their opposition. Some even entered politics to protect their interests or to oppose the Congress government. For instance, Maharani Gayatri Devi of Jaipur became a prominent political figure and critic of Indira Gandhi’s policies. Interestingly, the public sentiment largely favored the abolition.
- Question 18 of 144
18. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements with respect to the ‘Quit India’ Movement:
1. It started due to the failure of Cripps Mission in solving the constitutional deadlock.
2. There was lots of violence by the masses during the movement.3. Quit India movement was surprisingly short lived, yet it demonstrated the depth that nationalistic feeling had reached the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
CorrectThe British had sent Sir Stafford Cripps to negotiate Indian support for World War II, but his proposals fell short of granting real self-rule.
It was launched by Mahatma Gandhi on 8 August 1942 at the Bombay session of the All India Congress Committee, with the powerful call to action: “Do or Die”
The British responded swiftly by arresting Gandhi and most Congress leaders within hours of the speech.
Despite the leadership vacuum, mass protests erupted across the country, including strikes, sabotage of communication lines, and underground resistance.
The movement saw widespread participation from students, workers, and even peasants—though it also faced brutal repression.
The British realized that post-war, they could not govern India without massive unrest, setting the stage for independence in 1947
IncorrectThe British had sent Sir Stafford Cripps to negotiate Indian support for World War II, but his proposals fell short of granting real self-rule.
It was launched by Mahatma Gandhi on 8 August 1942 at the Bombay session of the All India Congress Committee, with the powerful call to action: “Do or Die”
The British responded swiftly by arresting Gandhi and most Congress leaders within hours of the speech.
Despite the leadership vacuum, mass protests erupted across the country, including strikes, sabotage of communication lines, and underground resistance.
The movement saw widespread participation from students, workers, and even peasants—though it also faced brutal repression.
The British realized that post-war, they could not govern India without massive unrest, setting the stage for independence in 1947
- Question 19 of 144
19. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following places:
- Balia
- Tamluk
- Satara
- Talcher
Select the options where parallel governments were established after Quit India Movement.
Correct<ol> <li><strong>Ballia (Uttar Pradesh)</strong></li> </ol> <ol> <li style="list-style-type: none"> <ul> <li><strong>Leader:</strong> Chittu Pandey</li> <li><strong>Highlights:</strong> Briefly took control in August 1942, released arrested Congress leaders, and forced the Collector to hand over power. It lasted only a few days before British forces reasserted control.</li> </ul> </li> <li><strong>Tamluk (West Bengal)</strong> – <em>Jatiya Sarkar</em> <ul> <li><strong>Leader:</strong> Satish Chandra Samanta and others</li> <li><strong>Highlights:</strong> Established in December 1942, it functioned until 1944. It ran schools, cyclone relief, arbitration courts, and even formed an armed volunteer group called <em>Vidyut Vahini</em>.</li> </ul> </li> <li><strong>Satara (Maharashtra)</strong> – <em>Prati Sarkar</em> <ul> <li><strong>Leader:</strong> Nana Patil, with support from Y.B. Chavan</li> <li><strong>Highlights:</strong> The most organized and long-lasting, it operated from 1943 to 1945. It ran people’s courts (<em>Nyayadan Mandals</em>), enforced prohibition, promoted education, and even held “Gandhi marriages” that rejected caste discrimination.</li> </ul> </li> <li><strong>Talcher (Odisha)</strong> <ul> <li><strong>Highlights:</strong> Talcher also saw the rise of a local government that resisted British control during the movement.</li> </ul> </li> </ol>
Incorrect<ol> <li><strong>Ballia (Uttar Pradesh)</strong></li> </ol> <ol> <li style="list-style-type: none"> <ul> <li><strong>Leader:</strong> Chittu Pandey</li> <li><strong>Highlights:</strong> Briefly took control in August 1942, released arrested Congress leaders, and forced the Collector to hand over power. It lasted only a few days before British forces reasserted control.</li> </ul> </li> <li><strong>Tamluk (West Bengal)</strong> – <em>Jatiya Sarkar</em> <ul> <li><strong>Leader:</strong> Satish Chandra Samanta and others</li> <li><strong>Highlights:</strong> Established in December 1942, it functioned until 1944. It ran schools, cyclone relief, arbitration courts, and even formed an armed volunteer group called <em>Vidyut Vahini</em>.</li> </ul> </li> <li><strong>Satara (Maharashtra)</strong> – <em>Prati Sarkar</em> <ul> <li><strong>Leader:</strong> Nana Patil, with support from Y.B. Chavan</li> <li><strong>Highlights:</strong> The most organized and long-lasting, it operated from 1943 to 1945. It ran people’s courts (<em>Nyayadan Mandals</em>), enforced prohibition, promoted education, and even held “Gandhi marriages” that rejected caste discrimination.</li> </ul> </li> <li><strong>Talcher (Odisha)</strong> <ul> <li><strong>Highlights:</strong> Talcher also saw the rise of a local government that resisted British control during the movement.</li> </ul> </li> </ol>
- Question 20 of 144
20. Question
Category: NCERTWhich of the following statement is incorrect about the Government of India Act of 1935?
(a) It abolished the Council of India, established by the Government of India Act of 1858
(b) It provided for the establishment of Provincial Public Service Commission
(c) It provided separate electorates for depressed classes (scheduled castes), women and labour (workers)
(d) It granted a franchise to a limited number of people on the basis of property, tax or education.CorrectOption (c) is incorrect; separate electorates were not given to women and labour.
IncorrectOption (c) is incorrect; separate electorates were not given to women and labour.
- Question 21 of 144
21. Question
Category: NCERTWhich of the following statements about the ‘Communal Award of 1932’ is/are incorrect?
1. It was announced by the British Prime Minister, Ramsay MacDonald.
2. It was awarded to minorities only.
3. B. R. Ambedkar protested against it and sat on ‘fast unto death’ in Yervada Jail.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:CorrectStatement 2 is incorrect; 1 and 3 are correct.
IncorrectStatement 2 is incorrect; 1 and 3 are correct.
- Question 22 of 144
22. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements:
1. Abolition of dyarchy
2. Extension of responsible government in the provinces
3. Continuation of communal electorate
Which of the above recommendations is/are submitted by Simon Commission to the British government?CorrectStatements 1 and 2 are correct; 3 is incorrect.
IncorrectStatements 1 and 2 are correct; 3 is incorrect.
- Question 23 of 144
23. Question
Category: NCERTWhich of the following statements is/are correct about the Cabinet Mission Plan?
1. It proposed a federal union with a weak centre and three groups of provinces.
2. It provided for the formation of a Constituent Assembly to frame the Constitution of India.
3. It recognized the demand for Pakistan.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:CorrectStatements 1 and 2 are correct; 3 is incorrect.
IncorrectStatements 1 and 2 are correct; 3 is incorrect.
- Question 24 of 144
24. Question
Category: NCERTWhich of the following statements is/are correct about the Indian Independence Act of 1947?
1. It ended British rule in India.
2. It declared India as a sovereign, independent state.
3. It provided for the partition of India and Pakistan.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:CorrectAll three statements are correct.
IncorrectAll three statements are correct.
- Question 25 of 144
25. Question
Category: NCERTWhich of the following statements is/are correct about the Constituent Assembly of India?
1. It was constituted under the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946.
2. The Assembly was partly elected and partly nominated.
3. The elections to the Constituent Assembly were held in July 1946.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:CorrectAll three statements are correct.
IncorrectAll three statements are correct.
- Question 26 of 144
26. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements with respect to the ‘Act for the Good Government of India’:
1. The Act transferred the powers of the East India Company to the British Crown.
2. It ended the system of double government by abolishing the Board of Control and Court of Directors.
3. It created a new office of the Viceroy of India, who was the member of the British Cabinet.
Which of the above statements are correct?CorrectStatements 1 and 2 are correct.
IncorrectStatements 1 and 2 are correct.
- Question 27 of 144
27. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements about the Government of India Act, 1858:
1. It established a 12-member Council of India to assist the Secretary of state for India.
2. Lord Dufferin became the first viceroy of India.
3. It ended the system of double government.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?CorrectStatement 2 is incorrect; 1 and 3 are correct.
IncorrectStatement 2 is incorrect; 1 and 3 are correct.
- Question 28 of 144
28. Question
Category: NCERTWhich of the following is/are the contribution(s) of the Indian Council Act of 1861 to the present Indian political system?
1. Ordinance making power
2. Portfolio system
3. Bicameralism in Parliament
Select the correct answer using the code given below:CorrectContributions 1 and 2 are correct.
IncorrectContributions 1 and 2 are correct.
- Question 29 of 144
29. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements about the Indian Councils Act of 1861:
1. It initiated the process of decentralization, by restoring the legislative powers to Bombay and Madras presidencies.
2. It introduced the portfolio system in centre.
3. It empowered the viceroy to issue ordinances without the concurrence of the legislative council, during an emergency.
Which of the above statements are correct?CorrectAll three statements are correct.
IncorrectAll three statements are correct.
- Question 30 of 144
30. Question
Category: NCERTWhich of the following statements is/are correct about the Simon Commission?
1. It was appointed as per the provisions of the Government of India Act of 1919.
2. It recommended the establishment of a federation of British India and princely states.
3. It argued against the continuation of the communal electorate in India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.CorrectStatements 1 and 2 are correct.
IncorrectStatements 1 and 2 are correct.
- Question 31 of 144
31. Question
Category: NCERTWhich of the following act empowers the Central Legislative council to discuss budget and address questions to the executive?
CorrectCorrect answer is Indian Councils Act, 1892.
IncorrectCorrect answer is Indian Councils Act, 1892.
- Question 32 of 144
32. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements about Morley-Minto reforms of 1909:
1. Increased the size of the Legislative Council in both centre and provinces.
2. Association of Indians with the executive council of the viceroy and governors.
3. Satyendra Sinha was the first Indian to join Viceroy’s executive council.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?CorrectAll three statements are correct.
IncorrectAll three statements are correct.
- Question 33 of 144
33. Question
Category: NCERTWhich of the following marked the beginning of the bicameralism system in India?
CorrectCorrect answer is Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms.
IncorrectCorrect answer is Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms.
- Question 34 of 144
34. Question
Category: NCERTWhich of the following statement is incorrect about the Government of India Act, 1919?
CorrectDyarchy was introduced only in provinces, not at the Centre. Hence option (b) is incorrect.
IncorrectDyarchy was introduced only in provinces, not at the Centre. Hence option (b) is incorrect.
- Question 35 of 144
35. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements regarding the constitutional importance of the Regulating Act of 1773:
1. It was the first step taken by the British Government to control and regulate the affairs of the East India Company in India.
2. It recognized for the first time, the political and administrative functions of the Company.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?CorrectBoth statements are correct.
IncorrectBoth statements are correct.
- Question 36 of 144
36. Question
Category: NCERTWith reference to Pitt’s India Act of 1784, consider the following statements:
1. It laid down the foundations of Central administration in India.
2. It made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India.
3. It gave the British Government supreme control over the Company’s affairs and its administration in India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?CorrectStatement 3 is correct.
IncorrectStatement 3 is correct.
- Question 37 of 144
37. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements about Regulating Act of 1773:
1. It was the first step taken by the British Government to control the affairs of East India Company.
2. It recognized, for the first time, the political and administrative functions of the Company.
3. It laid the foundations of central administration in India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?CorrectStatements 1 and 2 are correct.
IncorrectStatements 1 and 2 are correct.
- Question 38 of 144
38. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements:
1. Presidency of Calcutta was given greater powers in matters of war, revenue and diplomacy.
2. Calcutta effectively became the capital of company possessions in India.
Which of the above statements relating to Pitts India Act, 1784 is/are correct?CorrectBoth statements are correct.
IncorrectBoth statements are correct.
- Question 39 of 144
39. Question
Category: NCERTWhich of the following statements about Charter Act, 1793 is/are correct?
1. The Governor-General was empowered to disregard the majority in the council in special circumstances.
2. Governor-General and respective governors of the presidencies could now override the respective councils.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:CorrectBoth statements are correct.
IncorrectBoth statements are correct.
- Question 40 of 144
40. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements about Charter Act of 1813:
1. Trade with India for all commodities except tea was thrown open to all British subjects.
2. It granted permission to the persons who wished to go to India for promoting moral and religious improvements.
3. The EIC should invest Rs. 1 lakh every year on the education of Indians.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?CorrectAll three statements are correct.
IncorrectAll three statements are correct.
- Question 41 of 144
41. Question
Category: NCERTThe First Law Commission was established under which of the following?
CorrectCorrect answer is Charter Act of 1833.
IncorrectCorrect answer is Charter Act of 1833.
- Question 42 of 144
42. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements about the Charter Act of 1833:
1. It deprived the governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers.
2. It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became a purely administrative body.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?CorrectBoth statements are correct.
IncorrectBoth statements are correct.
- Question 43 of 144
43. Question
Category: NCERTThrough which among the following acts government of India having authority over the entire British territory in India was created?
CorrectCorrect answer is Charter Act of 1833.
IncorrectCorrect answer is Charter Act of 1833.
- Question 44 of 144
44. Question
Category: NCERTWhich of the following act introduced the Indian representation in the Central Legislative Council for the first time?
CorrectCorrect answer is Indian Council Act, 1861.
IncorrectCorrect answer is Indian Council Act, 1861.
- Question 45 of 144
45. Question
Category: NCERTWhich of the following functions were performed by the Constituent Assembly?
1. It passed certain statutes as a legislative assembly
2. It ratified India’s membership of the Commonwealth
3. It abolished the office of the Secretary of State of India and transferred his functions to the President of India.CorrectAll three functions were performed.
IncorrectAll three functions were performed.
- Question 46 of 144
46. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements with reference to the Objectives Resolution moved by Nehru:
1. Inspired by the Indian Nationalist Movement.
2. Stated the resolve to proclaim India as an Independent Socialist Democracy.CorrectStatement 1 is correct; Statement 2 is incorrect.
IncorrectStatement 1 is correct; Statement 2 is incorrect.
- Question 47 of 144
47. Question
Category: NCERTWho among the following were members of the Drafting Committee?
1. Syed Mohammad Saadullah
2. Dr. K. M. Munshi
3. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
4. B. Pattabhi SitaramayyaCorrectMembers included Syed Mohammad Saadullah and Dr. K. M. Munshi.
IncorrectMembers included Syed Mohammad Saadullah and Dr. K. M. Munshi.
- Question 48 of 144
48. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following pairs:
1. Linguistic Provinces Commission – S.K. Dhar
2. Finance and Staff Committee – B.R. Ambedkar
3. Rules of Procedure Committee – Dr. Rajendra Prasad
4. Press Gallery Committee – Usha Nath Sen
Which of the above pairs is/are incorrect?CorrectPairs 1 and 4 are incorrect.
IncorrectPairs 1 and 4 are incorrect.
- Question 49 of 144
49. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements regarding the Constituent Assembly:
1. Formed under scheme of Cripps Mission.
2. Made fully sovereign through Indian Independence Act of 1947.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?CorrectStatement 1 is incorrect; Statement 2 is correct.
IncorrectStatement 1 is incorrect; Statement 2 is correct.
- Question 50 of 144
50. Question
Category: NCERTWhich among the following is a modified version of the ‘Objectives Resolution’ passed by the Constituent Assembly?
CorrectThe Preamble to the Constitution of India is the modified version.
IncorrectThe Preamble to the Constitution of India is the modified version.
- Question 51 of 144
51. Question
Category: NCERTThe Indian Constitution is considered as the lengthiest constitution of the world. Which of the following reasons are responsible?
1. Geographical factors
2. Historical factors
3. Single Constitution for both Centre and States
4. Dominance of legal luminaries in the Constituent AssemblyCorrectAll four reasons are responsible.
IncorrectAll four reasons are responsible.
- Question 52 of 144
52. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements regarding the Constituent Assembly of India:
1. The first session was held on 9 December 1946.
2. The final session was held on 26 November 1949.CorrectBoth statements are correct.
IncorrectBoth statements are correct.
- Question 53 of 144
53. Question
Category: NCERTWhich of the following persons were members of the Constituent Assembly of India?
1. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
2. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
3. Rajkumari Amrit Kaur
4. Dr. John MathaiCorrectAll four were members.
IncorrectAll four were members.
- Question 54 of 144
54. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements:
1. The Cripps Proposal was accepted by both INC and Muslim League.
2. The Cabinet Mission proposed two constituent assemblies for India and Pakistan.CorrectStatement 2 is correct; Statement 1 is incorrect.
IncorrectStatement 2 is correct; Statement 1 is incorrect.
- Question 55 of 144
55. Question
Category: NCERTWhich of the following functions were performed by the Constituent Assembly of India?
1. Drafting of the Constitution of India.
2. Adopting National Song of India.
3. Enactment of ordinary laws.CorrectFunctions 1 and 3 were performed.
IncorrectFunctions 1 and 3 were performed.
- Question 56 of 144
56. Question
Category: NCERTWhich of the following statements about the Constituent Assembly of India is/are correct?
1. It was formed under the scheme formulated by the Cabinet Mission Plan.
2. It was a body elected directly by the people on the basis of universal adult franchise.CorrectStatement 1 is correct; Statement 2 is incorrect.
IncorrectStatement 1 is correct; Statement 2 is incorrect.
- Question 57 of 144
57. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements regarding the Constituent Assembly:
1. It was a fully sovereign body.
2. It could abrogate or alter any law made by the British Parliament in relation to India.
3. Princely states never joined the assembly.CorrectStatements 1 and 2 are correct; 3 is incorrect.
IncorrectStatements 1 and 2 are correct; 3 is incorrect.
- Question 58 of 144
58. Question
Category: NCERTParliamentary System of India is inspired by the British Parliamentary System, but it is different in the sense that:
1. India has a republican system in place of the British monarchical system.
2. Indian system is not based on the doctrine of the sovereignty of Parliament.CorrectBoth statements are correct.
IncorrectBoth statements are correct.
- Question 59 of 144
59. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements with reference to the Constituent Assembly:
1. The members of the Constituent Assembly were indirectly elected as well as nominated.
2. The election of the members of the Constituent Assembly from the Princely States was direct.
3. With Independence of India, the Constituent Assembly became a fully sovereign body.CorrectStatements 1 and 3 are correct.
IncorrectStatements 1 and 3 are correct.
- Question 60 of 144
60. Question
Category: NCERTMatch the following:
Constituent Assembly Committee — Chairman
1. Union Constitution Committee — A. Sardar Patel
2. Rules of Procedure Committee — B. Jawaharlal Nehru
3. Provincial Constitution Committee — C. Dr. Rajendra PrasadCorrectCorrect match is 1-A, 2-B, 3-C.
IncorrectCorrect match is 1-A, 2-B, 3-C.
- Question 61 of 144
61. Question
Category: NCERTWhich of the following feature is borrowed from the Japanese Constitution?
CorrectProcedure established by Law is borrowed from Japan.
IncorrectProcedure established by Law is borrowed from Japan.
- Question 62 of 144
62. Question
Category: NCERTWhich of the following acts has the most profound influence in framing of the Indian Constitution?
CorrectGovernment of India Act, 1935 had the most profound influence.
IncorrectGovernment of India Act, 1935 had the most profound influence.
- Question 63 of 144
63. Question
Category: NCERTThe beginning of the Parliamentary System in India can be traced back to which of the following Acts?
CorrectGovernment of India Act, 1919 marked the beginning.
IncorrectGovernment of India Act, 1919 marked the beginning.
- Question 64 of 144
64. Question
Category: NCERTWhich of the following marked the beginning of the bicameralism system in India?
CorrectMontagu-Chelmsford Reforms marked the beginning.
IncorrectMontagu-Chelmsford Reforms marked the beginning.
- Question 65 of 144
65. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following pairs:
Constitutional Provision — Country adopted from
1. Fundamental Rights — France
2. Directive Principles of State Policy — Ireland
3. Cabinet form of government — Britain
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?CorrectPairs 2 and 3 are correctly matched.
IncorrectPairs 2 and 3 are correctly matched.
- Question 66 of 144
66. Question
Category: NCERTThe idea of Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution was inspired by:
1. Government of India Act, 1935
2. Australian Constitution
3. United States ConstitutionCorrectInspired by the United States Constitution and Australian Constitution.
IncorrectInspired by the United States Constitution and Australian Constitution.
- Question 67 of 144
67. Question
Category: NCERTThe distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the scheme provided in the:
CorrectCorrect answer is Government of India Act, 1935.
IncorrectCorrect answer is Government of India Act, 1935.
- Question 68 of 144
68. Question
Category: NCERTThe Government of India Act, 1935 provided for the establishment of:
1. All-India Federation
2. Dyarchy in the provinces
3. Reserve Bank of IndiaCorrectStatements 2 and 3 are correct.
IncorrectStatements 2 and 3 are correct.
- Question 69 of 144
69. Question
Category: NCERTThe origin of an ordinance making power as provided in the Indian Constitution can be traced back to:
CorrectCorrect answer is Indian Councils Act, 1861.
IncorrectCorrect answer is Indian Councils Act, 1861.
- Question 70 of 144
70. Question
Category: NCERTWhich of the following statements is incorrect regarding the Indian Constitution?
CorrectIt was adopted on 26 November 1949, not 26 January 1950.
IncorrectIt was adopted on 26 November 1949, not 26 January 1950.
- Question 71 of 144
71. Question
Category: NCERTWhich of the following statements best explains the meaning of the term ‘Constitution’?
CorrectIt determines the powers and duties of the government and guarantees certain rights to the people.
IncorrectIt determines the powers and duties of the government and guarantees certain rights to the people.
- Question 72 of 144
72. Question
Category: NCERTWhich of the following are considered as limitations of the Indian Constitution?
1. Centralised idea of national unity.
2. Glossed over gender justice issues.
3. Socio-economic rights relegated to Directive Principles.CorrectAll three are considered limitations.
IncorrectAll three are considered limitations.
- Question 73 of 144
73. Question
Category: NCERTMatch the following pairs:
1. Monarchial — A. Hereditary ruler
2. Soviet Union — D. One single party decides
3. Plutocratic — B. Ruled by wealthy minority
4. Democratic — C. Parliament decides laws/policiesCorrectCorrect match is 1-A, 2-D, 3-B, 4-C.
IncorrectCorrect match is 1-A, 2-D, 3-B, 4-C.
- Question 74 of 144
74. Question
Category: NCERTHow does the Constitution express the fundamental identity of people?
1. By letting individuals pursue aspirations and freedoms.
2. By setting constraints upon actions.CorrectBoth statements are correct.
IncorrectBoth statements are correct.
- Question 75 of 144
75. Question
Category: NCERTWhich of the following are considered constraints in the Sovereignty of Parliament?
1. Written Constitution
2. Federal System
3. Judicial Review
4. Fundamental RightsCorrectAll four are constraints.
IncorrectAll four are constraints.
- Question 76 of 144
76. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements:
1. Democracy derives power from the people.
2. India follows First Past the Post and Proportional Representation.CorrectStatement 1 is correct; Statement 2 is incorrect.
IncorrectStatement 1 is correct; Statement 2 is incorrect.
- Question 77 of 144
77. Question
Category: NCERTWhich majority is required in Parliament to change the name of a state?
CorrectMajority of present and voting members in each house.
IncorrectMajority of present and voting members in each house.
- Question 78 of 144
78. Question
Category: NCERTWhich provisions require Special Majority of Parliament and Consent of States?
1. Power to amend Constitution
2. Extent of executive power of Union and States
3. Election of the President
4. Representation of States in ParliamentCorrectProvisions 1, 2 and 4 require special majority and consent.
IncorrectProvisions 1, 2 and 4 require special majority and consent.
- Question 79 of 144
79. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements about Special Majority:
1. More than 50% of total membership and two-thirds present and voting.
2. ‘Total membership’ excludes vacancies.
3. Special majority is required in Rajya Sabha for removal of Vice-President.CorrectStatements 1 and 2 are correct; 3 is incorrect.
IncorrectStatements 1 and 2 are correct; 3 is incorrect.
- Question 80 of 144
80. Question
Category: NCERTThe 93rd Constitution Amendment Act deals with:
CorrectIt deals with extension of reservation in educational institutions.
IncorrectIt deals with extension of reservation in educational institutions.
- Question 81 of 144
81. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements regarding the amendment procedure:
1. Amendment can be initiated only in Parliament, not in state legislatures.
2. The President must give assent to the Constitutional Amendment Bill.CorrectBoth statements are correct.
IncorrectBoth statements are correct.
- Question 82 of 144
82. Question
Category: NCERTTo resolve Union–State list conflicts, Supreme Court laid down principles:
1. Doctrine of Pith and Substance
2. Doctrine of Colorable LegislationCorrectBoth doctrines are correct.
IncorrectBoth doctrines are correct.
- Question 83 of 144
83. Question
Category: NCERTWhich doctrines are applicable in India?
1. Sovereignty of Parliament
2. Legal Precedent
3. Eclipse
4. SeverabilityCorrectDoctrines 2, 3 and 4 are applicable.
IncorrectDoctrines 2, 3 and 4 are applicable.
- Question 84 of 144
84. Question
Category: NCERTWhich of the following is a procedural achievement of the Indian Constitution?
CorrectIt reflects a spirit of compromise and accommodation.
IncorrectIt reflects a spirit of compromise and accommodation.
- Question 85 of 144
85. Question
Category: NCERTThe Constitution limits the power of Government by means of:
1. Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression
2. Right to Constitutional RemediesCorrectBoth statements are correct.
IncorrectBoth statements are correct.
- Question 86 of 144
86. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements on Parliamentary Government:
1. Prime Minister is head of Government.
2. Ministers are collectively responsible to Parliament.
3. A person ceases to be Minister if not elected within six months.
4. Executive can dissolve legislature.CorrectAll four statements are correct.
IncorrectAll four statements are correct.
- Question 87 of 144
87. Question
Category: NCERTIndian Government is a federation with centralizing tendency. Which provisions support this?
1. Single and flexible Constitution
2. Provision of All India Services
3. Appointment of State Governor by CentreCorrectAll three provisions support centralizing tendency.
IncorrectAll three provisions support centralizing tendency.
- Question 88 of 144
88. Question
Category: NCERTWhich are features of Presidential Government?
1. Separation of Power
2. Wider Representation
3. Unstable government
4. Single executiveCorrectFeatures are Separation of Power and Single executive.
IncorrectFeatures are Separation of Power and Single executive.
- Question 89 of 144
89. Question
Category: NCERTWhich features represent the Federal structure of Indian Polity?
1. Bicameralism
2. Written Constitution
3. Supremacy of the Constitution
4. Single Citizenship
5. Integrated JudiciaryCorrectFeatures 1, 2 and 3 represent federal structure.
IncorrectFeatures 1, 2 and 3 represent federal structure.
- Question 90 of 144
90. Question
Category: NCERTWhich political author described the Indian Constitution as ‘federal in form but unitary in spirit’?
CorrectK. C. Wheare described it as federal in form but unitary in spirit.
IncorrectK. C. Wheare described it as federal in form but unitary in spirit.
- Question 91 of 144
91. Question
Category: NCERTWhich are reasons behind the bulkiness of the Indian Constitution?
1. Geographical factors (vastness and diversity)
2. Historical factors (influence of 1935 Act)
3. Single Constitution for Centre and States
4. Dominance of legal luminariesCorrectAll four reasons are responsible.
IncorrectAll four reasons are responsible.
- Question 92 of 144
92. Question
Category: NCERTIn which case did the Supreme Court first consider the Doctrine of Severability?
CorrectIt was first considered in A. K. Gopalan Case.
IncorrectIt was first considered in A. K. Gopalan Case.
- Question 93 of 144
93. Question
Category: NCERTWhich are reasons behind the bulkiness of the Indian Constitution?
1. Geographical factors
2. Historical factors (1935 Act)
3. Single Constitution for Centre and States
4. Dominance of legal luminariesCorrectAll four reasons are responsible.
IncorrectAll four reasons are responsible.
- Question 94 of 144
94. Question
Category: NCERTThe origin of ordinance-making power in the Indian Constitution can be traced back to:
CorrectCorrect answer is Indian Councils Act, 1861.
IncorrectCorrect answer is Indian Councils Act, 1861.
- Question 95 of 144
95. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements with reference to the Preamble:
1. It cannot be amended even by Parliament.
2. It mentions ideals to be achieved in independent India.
3. It was the first section drafted and enacted by the Constituent Assembly.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?CorrectStatements 1 and 3 are incorrect.
IncorrectStatements 1 and 3 are incorrect.
- Question 96 of 144
96. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements regarding the Preamble:
1. It is based on Objectives Resolution drafted by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar.
2. It is a part of the Constitution.CorrectStatement 2 is correct; Statement 1 is incorrect.
IncorrectStatement 2 is correct; Statement 1 is incorrect.
- Question 97 of 144
97. Question
Category: NCERTArrange the following words in order of occurrence in the Preamble:
1. Sovereign
2. Democratic
3. Secular
4. Justice
5. EqualityCorrectCorrect order is 1-3-2-5-4.
IncorrectCorrect order is 1-3-2-5-4.
- Question 98 of 144
98. Question
Category: NCERTWhich Articles reveal the secular character of the Indian state?
1. Article 15
2. Article 16
3. Article 29
4. Article 14CorrectAll four Articles reveal secular character.
IncorrectAll four Articles reveal secular character.
- Question 99 of 144
99. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements on Secularism:
1. ‘Secular’ is mentioned in Preamble and DPSP.
2. Indian secularism is same as Western secularism.
3. Secularism is not part of Basic Structure.CorrectOnly statement 1 is correct.
IncorrectOnly statement 1 is correct.
- Question 100 of 144
100. Question
Category: NCERTThe word ‘Secular’ was added to the Constitution by which Amendment Act?
CorrectIt was added by the 42nd Amendment Act.
IncorrectIt was added by the 42nd Amendment Act.
- Question 101 of 144
101. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements on ‘Republic’:
1. In a Republic, Head of State is elected.
2. Every democratic country is also a republic.
3. In Presidential system, Head of State is indirectly elected; in Republic, directly elected.CorrectOnly statement 1 is correct.
IncorrectOnly statement 1 is correct.
- Question 102 of 144
102. Question
Category: NCERTWhich features express the principle of fraternity?
1. Dignity of individual
2. Integrity of nation
3. Unity of nationCorrectAll three express fraternity.
IncorrectAll three express fraternity.
- Question 103 of 144
103. Question
Category: NCERTWhich statements are correct about Indian Socialism?
1. It is in form of State socialism.
2. Influenced by Gandhian socialism.
3. After 1991 reforms, socialist values strengthened.CorrectStatements 1 and 2 are correct.
IncorrectStatements 1 and 2 are correct.
- Question 104 of 144
104. Question
Category: NCERTThe First Schedule of the Constitution contains names of:
1. States and their territorial jurisdiction
2. Union Territories and their extentCorrectBoth statements are correct.
IncorrectBoth statements are correct.
- Question 105 of 144
105. Question
Category: NCERTThe Second Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains provisions related to:
1. Forms of oaths or affirmations
2. Emoluments, allowances, and privileges for holders of constitutional officesCorrectBoth statements are correct.
IncorrectBoth statements are correct.
- Question 106 of 144
106. Question
Category: NCERTWhich of the following is related to Schedule 3 of the Indian Constitution?
CorrectIt relates to forms of oaths for Union Ministers.
IncorrectIt relates to forms of oaths for Union Ministers.
- Question 107 of 144
107. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements regarding the Fourth Schedule:
1. It contains provisions regarding allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha to States and Union Territories.
2. Allocation of seats is made on the basis of population of each State.CorrectBoth statements are correct.
IncorrectBoth statements are correct.
- Question 108 of 144
108. Question
Category: NCERTWhich schedule deals with administration of tribal areas except Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram?
CorrectCorrect answer is Fifth Schedule.
IncorrectCorrect answer is Fifth Schedule.
- Question 109 of 144
109. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements regarding the Sixth Schedule:
1. District and regional councils can assess and collect land revenue and impose specified taxes.
2. The Governor can organise or re-organise autonomous districts.CorrectBoth statements are correct.
IncorrectBoth statements are correct.
- Question 110 of 144
110. Question
Category: NCERTWhich subjects come under the State List in the Seventh Schedule?
1. Education
2. Forests
3. Pilgrimage within India
4. AgricultureCorrectSubjects 3 and 4 are in the State List.
IncorrectSubjects 3 and 4 are in the State List.
- Question 111 of 144
111. Question
Category: NCERTThe subject of Local Government is mentioned under which list of the Seventh Schedule?
CorrectIt is mentioned under the State List.
IncorrectIt is mentioned under the State List.
- Question 112 of 144
112. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements:
1. The Constitution provides Hindi as the official language of the Union.
2. Scheduled languages are those included in the Eighth Schedule.CorrectBoth statements are correct.
IncorrectBoth statements are correct.
- Question 113 of 144
113. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements regarding the Ninth Schedule:
1. It contains only 13 acts and regulations.
2. It deals with Panchayati Raj institutions.
3. All acts under it are completely immune from judicial review.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?CorrectStatements 1, 2 and 3 are incorrect.
IncorrectStatements 1, 2 and 3 are incorrect.
- Question 114 of 144
114. Question
Category: NCERTWhich schedule contains provisions regarding disqualification of members of Parliament and State Legislatures on grounds of defection?
CorrectCorrect answer is Tenth Schedule.
IncorrectCorrect answer is Tenth Schedule.
- Question 115 of 144
115. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements about the Eleventh Schedule:
1. It relates to powers and responsibilities of Panchayats.
2. It contains 28 subjects.CorrectBoth statements are correct.
IncorrectBoth statements are correct.
- Question 116 of 144
116. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements regarding the Twelfth Schedule:
1. Added by the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act.
2. Specifies powers, authority, and responsibilities of Municipalities.CorrectBoth statements are correct.
IncorrectBoth statements are correct.
- Question 117 of 144
117. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements regarding the Preamble:
1. The 42nd Amendment added only Socialist and Secular words.
2. Liberty conceived by the Preamble or Fundamental Rights is not absolute but qualified.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?CorrectStatement 1 is incorrect; Statement 2 is correct.
IncorrectStatement 1 is incorrect; Statement 2 is correct.
- Question 118 of 144
118. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements regarding Constitutional Amendment under Article 368:
1. A Constitutional Amendment Bill can be introduced by a Minister or private member; no prior permission of the President is required.
2. Article 368 provides for two types of amendments: by special majority of Parliament and through ratification by half of the States.
3. In case of disagreement between Houses, there is provision for joint sitting.
Select the correct answer:CorrectStatements 1 and 2 are correct; Statement 3 is incorrect.
IncorrectStatements 1 and 2 are correct; Statement 3 is incorrect.
- Question 119 of 144
119. Question
Category: NCERTWhich of the following statements is correct regarding the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
CorrectThe Preamble is not enforceable in a court of law.
IncorrectThe Preamble is not enforceable in a court of law.
- Question 120 of 144
120. Question
Category: NCERTWhich of the following has the authority to add new territory into India?
CorrectParliament has the authority to add new territory.
IncorrectParliament has the authority to add new territory.
- Question 121 of 144
121. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements:
1. Article 1 describes India as Union of States.
2. The Constitution does not use the term ‘federal state’.CorrectBoth statements are correct.
IncorrectBoth statements are correct.
- Question 122 of 144
122. Question
Category: NCERTThe expression ‘Union of India’ under Article 1 includes:
1. States
2. Union Territories
3. Territories that India may acquire in the futureCorrectIt includes States, Union Territories, and future territories.
IncorrectIt includes States, Union Territories, and future territories.
- Question 123 of 144
123. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements:
1. States share powers with the Centre.
2. Union Territories and acquired territories are directly administered by the Centre.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?CorrectStatement 1 is incorrect; Statement 2 is correct.
IncorrectStatement 1 is incorrect; Statement 2 is correct.
- Question 124 of 144
124. Question
Category: NCERTWhich criterion for State Reorganization was given by S. K. Dhar Commission?
CorrectAdministrative convenience was the criterion.
IncorrectAdministrative convenience was the criterion.
- Question 125 of 144
125. Question
Category: NCERTWith reference to the State Reorganization Commission (1953), which statements are correct?
1. Headed by Sardar Patel
2. Recommended 16 states initially
3. Special safeguards for linguistic minoritiesCorrectStatement 3 is correct; 1 and 2 are incorrect.
IncorrectStatement 3 is correct; 1 and 2 are incorrect.
- Question 126 of 144
126. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements:
1. Indian territory can be ceded to a foreign country by executive action.
2. Boundary dispute settlement does not require constitutional amendment.CorrectBoth statements are incorrect.
IncorrectBoth statements are incorrect.
- Question 127 of 144
127. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements on formation of new states:
1. Special majority with ratification of half states is required.
2. Bill can only be introduced in Rajya Sabha with prior permission of President.
3. Bill lapses automatically if concerned state denies consent.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?CorrectAll three statements are incorrect.
IncorrectAll three statements are incorrect.
- Question 128 of 144
128. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements:
1. ‘Union of States’ includes states in First Schedule.
2. Bill for new states requires prior permission of President.
3. Bill must be passed by special majority in both Houses.CorrectStatements 1 and 2 are correct; 3 is incorrect.
IncorrectStatements 1 and 2 are correct; 3 is incorrect.
- Question 129 of 144
129. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements:
1. Bill under Article 3 can be introduced only in Lok Sabha.
2. Bill under Article 3 can be introduced only on recommendation of President.CorrectStatement 2 is correct; Statement 1 is incorrect.
IncorrectStatement 2 is correct; Statement 1 is incorrect.
- Question 130 of 144
130. Question
Category: NCERTWhich statement is correct regarding powers of Parliament under Article 3?
CorrectParliament can create a new state even against the views of the State Legislature.
IncorrectParliament can create a new state even against the views of the State Legislature.
- Question 131 of 144
131. Question
Category: NCERTBerubari Union case is related to:
CorrectIt is related to Citizenship.
IncorrectIt is related to Citizenship.
- Question 132 of 144
132. Question
Category: NCERTWhich of the following States were formerly Union Territories?
1. Himachal Pradesh
2. Manipur
3. Tripura
4. Sikkim
5. Goa
6. Arunachal PradeshCorrectCorrect answer is 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6.
IncorrectCorrect answer is 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6.
- Question 133 of 144
133. Question
Category: NCERTWhat majority is required in Parliament to change the name of a state?
CorrectMajority of present and voting is required.
IncorrectMajority of present and voting is required.
- Question 134 of 144
134. Question
Category: NCERTIn context of Parliament’s power to reorganize states:
1. In UT reorganization, reference to legislature is required.
2. Views of legislature are binding on President.CorrectStatement 1 is correct; Statement 2 is incorrect.
IncorrectStatement 1 is correct; Statement 2 is incorrect.
- Question 135 of 144
135. Question
Category: NCERTIndia is described as ‘Union of States’ because:
1. Federation is not result of agreement among states.
2. States have no right to secede.CorrectBoth statements are correct.
IncorrectBoth statements are correct.
- Question 136 of 144
136. Question
Category: NCERTChanges in name, boundary, or area of a state cause changes in which schedules?
CorrectSchedules 1 and 4 are affected.
IncorrectSchedules 1 and 4 are affected.
- Question 137 of 144
137. Question
Category: NCERTWhich is correct regarding Article 2?
CorrectIt deals with admission or establishment of new states not part of Union of India.
IncorrectIt deals with admission or establishment of new states not part of Union of India.
- Question 138 of 144
138. Question
Category: NCERTIf Parliament wants to create a new state from any territory, which Article should be referred to?
CorrectArticle 3 should be referred.
IncorrectArticle 3 should be referred.
- Question 139 of 144
139. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following pairs:
1. Junagarh — Police Action
2. Kashmir — Instrument of Accession
3. Hyderabad — Referendum
Which pairs are correct?CorrectPairs 1 and 2 are correct.
IncorrectPairs 1 and 2 are correct.
- Question 140 of 144
140. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements regarding JVP Committee:
1. It consisted of Nehru, Patel, and Pattabhi Sitaramayya; report submitted in 1948.
2. It accepted language as basis for reorganization.
Which statements are incorrect?CorrectStatement 2 is incorrect; Statement 1 is correct.
IncorrectStatement 2 is incorrect; Statement 1 is correct.
- Question 141 of 144
141. Question
Category: NCERTWhich statements about Fazl Ali Commission are correct?
1. It totally rejected language as basis.
2. It was a 4-member body to re-examine feasibility of linguistic states.CorrectStatement 2 is correct; Statement 1 is incorrect.
IncorrectStatement 2 is correct; Statement 1 is incorrect.
- Question 142 of 144
142. Question
Category: NCERTConsider the following statements:
1. Goa attained full statehood in 1987.
2. Daman and Diu were separated from Goa by the 56th Amendment.CorrectBoth statements are correct.
IncorrectBoth statements are correct.
- Question 143 of 144
143. Question
Category: NCERTArrange the following states in chronological order of formation:
1. Maharashtra
2. Goa
3. Nagaland
4. HaryanaCorrectCorrect order is 1-3-4-2.
IncorrectCorrect order is 1-3-4-2.
- Question 144 of 144
144. Question
Category: NCERTWhich factors were recommended by Fazl Ali Commission for reorganization of states?
1. Preservation and strengthening of unity and security of the country.
2. Linguistic and cultural homogeneity.CorrectBoth factors were recommended.
IncorrectBoth factors were recommended.
General Studies MCQs based on NCERT
