1. The Nandaghat is situtated on the bank of which river?
a) Maniyari
b) Karun
c) Sheonath
d) Mahanadi
2. According to the area of oil-seed crops of Chhattisgarh, arrange them in increasing order:
a) Linseed, mustard, groundnut, sesame oil
b) Mustard, groundnut, linseed, sesame oil
c) Groundnut, linseed, sesame oil, mustard
d) Sesame oil, groundnut, mustard, linseed
3. Which district has maximum extension of unclassified forest?
a) Janjgir-Champa
b) Raigarh
c) Dantewada
d) Mahasamund
4. Which type of energy uses are promoted by inaccessible area of Chhattisgarh?
a) Thermal energy
b) Solar energy
c) Wind energy
d) Biomass energy
5. Chhattisgarh have an agricultural climate region are
a) Northern hilly region
b) Plain of Chhattisgarh
c) Bastar plateau
d) All of these
6. The relation of golden quadrilateral project is with the development of
a) Ports
b) Highway
c) Tourist cycle
d) Electrical chain
7. Which of the following soil is most commonly found in Chhattisgarh?
a) Black soil
b) Red-sandy soil
c) Red-yellow soil
d) Laterite soil
8. Which tree wood is used to make ‘Kattha’?
a) Sal
b) Saja
c) Babool
d) Khair
9. According to Census 2011, what is the growth rate of female and male literacy in Chhattisgarh?
a) 4.01% and 7.96%
b) 7.05% and 6.06%
c) 8.74% and 4.07%
d) 4.07% and 8.74%
10. According to Census 2011, arrange the Urban population of the districts of Chhattisgarh in decreasing order:
a) Korba, Durg, Jashpur, Bilaspur
b) Durg, Korba, Bilaspur, Jashpur
c) Bilaspur, Durg, Korba, Jashpur
d) Jashpur, Bilaspur, Korba, Durg
11. Which of the following is not a ‘Maha-Ratna’ category unit?
a) GAIL
b) Coal India Ltd.
c) SAIL
d) Airport Authority of India
12. In which year, ‘MSMEs’ are indentified and classified by Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises Development Act?
a) 2004
b) 2006
c) 2007
d) 2008
13. As per Industrial Policy of 1991, how many industries were reserved only for public sector?
a) 11
b) 07
c) 16
d) 08
14. How many sugar industries units have in Chhattisgarh state?
a) One
b) Three
c) Two
d) Four
15. Godawari- Sabari plain located in Chhattisgarh
a) In Danakaranya
b) In Jashpur Samari Pat
c) In East Baghelkhand Plateau
d) In Mahanadi Basin
16. Bhoramdeo is related with which Naga dynasty?
a) Phaninag
b) Karkotak
c) Vasuki
d) Chhindaka Naga
17. Gandheswara temple is situated in which place?
a) Malhar
b) Ratanpur
c) Sirpur
d) Rajim
18. The archaeological site Dipadiha is situated in which river bank?
a) Kanhar
b) Renda
c) Hasdeo
d) Shivnath
19. Chitrakot is related with which kind of site?
a) Sanctuary
b) Rock cut cave
c) Underground cave
d) Waterfall
20. The Dideneswari temple is situated in which site?
a) Dantewada
b) Barsoor
c) Malhar
d) Ratanpur
21. ‘Kacchan Gadi’ is a ritual related to which festival?
a) Goncha
b) Hareli
c) Dashahra
d) Holi
22. Which of the below is associated with Ghotul?
a) Dadriya
b) Saila
c) Hulkipata
d) Faag
23. ‘Bilma’ dance is associated with which tribe?
a) Baiga
b) Madia
c) Parja
d) Oraon
24. Memorial pillars tradition is associated with which tribe?
a) Baiga
b) Bhaina
c) Nagesia
d) Dandami Madia
25. Pando language is related to which language family?
a) Aryan
b) Dravidian
c) Mundari (PSC Model Ans)
d) None of these
Correct answer shoul be Indo-Aryan. Refer https://www.ethnologue.com/language/hne
26. Pardhan tribe is mainly inhabitant of which district?
a) Dantewada
b) Balrampur
c) Kabirdham
d) Raigarh
27. Madai of which place is very famous?
a) Narayanpur
b) Jagdalpur
c) Kanker
d) Charama
28. Minimata award is given in which field by Chhattisgarh Government?
a) Non-violence
b) Women upliftment
c) Scheduled caste welfare
d) Youth welfare
29. Kaksad dance is associated with which tribe?
a) Korku
b) Baiga
c) Abujh madia
d) Birhor
30. Which of the below is not associated with Bastar Division?
a) Rahas
b) Gendi
c) Bhatra Nat
d) Maopata
31. ‘Tupki’ is related to which festival?
a) Navakhai
b) Deewali
c) Dashahra
d) Rathyatra
32. Which tribe from Bastar is mainly inhabitant of Odisha State?
a) Halba
b) Muria
c) Baiga
d) Gadba
33. Youth dormitory is traditionally prevalent among which tribe?
a) Halba
b) Bhatra
c) Oraon
d) Birhor
34. According to Verrier Elwin which of the following is one of the most beautiful dance form of the world?
a) Gaur dance
b) Kaksad
c) Parghauni
d) Gendi
35. Shringar Ras is mainly contained in which folk song?
a) Bharthari
b) Dadriya
c) Bansgeet
d) Pandwani
36. ‘Sarhul’ dance is associated with which tribe?
a) Bhujiya
b) Kamar
c) Madia
d) Oraon
37. Which language is known as lingua franka of Bastar?
a) Gondi
b) Bhatri
c) Halbi
d) Parji
38. What is the meaning of ‘Pariya’?
a) Which is not being cultivated
b) Path between the fields
c) Kharif crops
d) Water-logged field
39. Which of the following tribe extracts iron by smelting ore?
a) Kamar
b) Agariya
c) Halba
d) Baiga
40. ‘Saila’ dance is mainly performed on which occasion?
a) Deepavali
b) Holi
c) Rathyatra
d) None of these
41. ‘Biyar’ tribe mainly lives in which district?
a) Sarguja
b) Kabirdham
c) Gariyaband
d) Dantewada
42. Which of the following writer has translated ‘Geeta Rahasya’ in Hindi?
a) Madhav Rao Sapre
b) Koduram Dalit
c) Sundarlal Sharma
d) Baldeo Prasad Mishra
43. Who is the poet of ‘Dhamni Haat’?
a) Dr. Khubchand Baghel
b) Vinay Pathak
c) Mukutdhar Pandey
d) Dwarika Prasad Tiwari ‘Vipra’
44. Lala Jagdalpuri is the author of which of the below?
a) Lal Andhera
b) Shalvano ke Dwip
c) Bogda
d) Dahadte Parivesh
45. Which of the following is not name of a direction?
a) Ugati
b) Kamari
c) Budati
d) Bhandar
46. ‘Dorli’ is mainly a language of which district?
a) Kondagaon
b) Kanker
c) Narayanpur
d) Sukma
47. Match the following (Forest Satyagraha in Chhattisgarh during Civil Disobedience Movement and Leaders)
List-I List-II
(Forest Satyagarha) (Leaders)
A. Rudri- Nawagaon, August 1930 i. Nathuji Jagtap
B. Tamora, September 1930 ii. Ramadhar Dubey
C. Pakaria, October 1930 iii. Yati Yatanlal
D. Podigaon, October 1930 iv. Ayodhya Pd Jain
Select the correct answer:
A B C D
a) i iii iv ii
b) i ii iii iv
c) i iv iii ii
d) i iii ii iv
48. During the Quit India Movement in Chhattisgarh, the wife of which of the following political leader who sent to jail for six months?
a) Pt. Ravishankar Shukla
b) Thakur Chhedi Lal
c) Kranti Kumar Bhartiya
d) Dr. Khubchand Baghel (PSC Model Ans)
49. Which of the following is not a dialect of Bastar region?
a) Gondi
b) Pardhi
c) Dorli
d) Parji
50. On which of the following date the 17 associates of Hanuman Singh were hanged in connection with the Sepoy Revolt of 1858 in Chhattisgarh?
a) 18th January, 1858
b) 20th January, 1858
c) 22th January, 1858
d) 24th January, 1858
51. The following institutes were founded between 1870 and 1900 with a view to arouse political consciousness in Chhattisgarh?
i. Malini Reading Club
ii. Buddhiman Sabha
iii. Kavi Samaj
iv. Bal Samaj
Select the correct answer:
a) (i), (ii), (iii) (PSC Model Ans)
b) (ii), (iii), (iv)
c) (i), (iii), (iv)
d) (i), (ii), (iv)
52. The following persons contributed in establishing a ‘Rashtriya Vidyalaya’ at Raipur during the Non-Cooperation Movement in Chhattisgarh?
i. Madhav Rao Sapre
ii. Mahant Laxminarayan Das
iii. Baldev Prasad Mishra
iv. N D Dani
Select the correct answer:
a) (i), (ii), (iii)
b) (ii), (iii), (iv)
c) (i), (iii), (iv) (PSC Model Ans)
d) (i), (ii), (iv)
53. Match the following (Maratha Subedars posted in Chhattisgarh and events)
List- I List- II
(Subedars) (Events)
A. Mahipat Rao i. Travel of Colebrooke in Chhattisgarh
B. Vitthalrao Dinkar ii. Travel of Forrester in Chhattisgarh
C. Keshav Govind iii. Question of succession in Surguja
D. Bikaji Gopal iv. Travel of J T Blunt in Chhattisgarh
A B C D
a) ii iii I iv
b) ii iv i iii
c) ii iv iii i
d) ii I iv iii
54. Which of the following is not correctly matched regarding the ‘Pargana System’ under the Maratha administration in Chhattisgarh?
a) Phadanvis – To keep the account of income and expenditure of pargana
b) Badkar – To prepare the revenue records
c) Barar Pande – To safeguard government property
d) Potdar – To keep account of the income of pargana
55. Who of the following was the real founder of the Kalchuri dynasty in Chhattisgarh?
a) Kamalraj
b) Kalingraj
c) Kokalladev
d) Mugdhatunga
56. Which of the following statement is not true about the Kalchuri king of Chhattisgarh, Ratnadev-II?
a) He thwarted the invasion of Tripuri King Gayakarna.
b) Anantvarma Chodgang invaded his kingdom.
c) He was successful in his invasion on Gaud (Bengal).
d) His feudal Vallabhraj revolted against him. (PSC Model Ans)
57. By which of the following title the rulers of Raipur branch were known in the Kalchuri administration in Chhattisgarh?
a) Maharajkumar Raja (PSC Model Ans)
b) Maharajadhiraj
c) Mahasamanta
d) Mahamatya Kumar
58. Match the following (ancient dynasties of Chhattisgarh and rulers)
List- I List- II
(Dynasties) (Rulers)
A. Rajarshitulyakula i. Jayraj
B. Nala Dynasty ii. Skandvarma
C. Sharabhpuriyas iii. Bhimsena- I
D. Pandu Dynasty iv. Chandragupta
A B C D
a) iii i iv ii
b) iii ii i iv
c) iii iv i ii
d) iii ii iv i
59. The rulers of which of the following dynasty of ancient Chhattisgarh had assumed the title ‘Trikalingadhipati’?
a) Soma dynasty
b) Naga dynasty
c) Phaninaga dynasty
d) Nala dynasty
60. The following rulers were related to the ancient Chhindak-Naga dynasty of Bastar in Chhattisgarh:
i. Someshwardev
ii. Kanhardev
iii. Narsinhdev
iv. Jaydev
Select the correct answer:
a) (i), (ii), (iii)
b) (ii), (iii), (iv)
c) (i), (ii), (iv)
d) (i), (iii), (iv)
61. What is said about collector in Chhattisgarh Municipalities Act?
a) Collector appointed under Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code, 1959 Sec-16
b) Collector appointed under Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code, 1959 Sec-25
c) Collector appointed under Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code, 1959 Sec-30
d) Collector appointed under Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code, 1959 Sec-37
62. The following places of Chhattisgarh are said to be related with King Mordhwaj according to the ancient adage:
i. Arang
ii. Khallari
iii. Ratanpur
iv. Raipur
Select the correct answer:
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (ii) and (iii)
c) (i) and (iii)
d) (ii) and (iv)
63. The wooden pillar from village Kirari of Bilaspur district shows that which of the following dynasty was ruling over Chhattisgarh?
a) Mauryas
b) Shunga
c) Kanva
d) Satvahana
64. Who administers the oath to the Parliamentary Secretaries?
a) Governor
b) Chief Minister
c) Chief Justice of High Court
d) None of these
65. What is correct about Protem Speaker?
i. He is a senior most member of house.
ii. He is nominated by State Governor.
iii. He is appointed by Governor.
iv. He administers the oath of members of newly constituted Legislative Assembly.
v. He conducts the election of Speaker.
vi. He administers the oath to the Speaker.
Choose the correct answer:
a) i ii iii vi
b) i iii v vi
c) i ii iv vi
d) i iii iv v
66. Match Assembly Constituencies with Lok Sabha Constituencies:
Lok Sabha Constituencies Assembly Constituencies
A. Kanker i. Narayanpur
B. Sarguja ii. Gundardehi
C. Bastar iii. Nawagarh
D. Durg iv. Sitapur
Choose the correct answer:
A B C D
a) ii iv iii i
b) iii i iv ii
c) iv i ii iii
d) ii iv i iii
67. What is correct?
i. Answer on starred questions is in written form.
ii. Answer on starred questions is given in oral form.
iii. Answer on unstarred questions is given in written form.
iv. Answer on unstarred questions is given in oral form.
v. Supplementary question may be asked on starred question.
vi. Supplementary question may be asked on unstarred question.
vii. In the question hour answer can be discussed.
viii. In the question hour answer can’t be discussed.
Choose the correct answer:
a) i iii v vii
b) i iv vi vii
c) ii iii v viii
d) ii iii vi viii
68. Supposing the strength of State Legislative Assembly is 90. Two seats are vacant. In a meeting 86 members are present. House is considering the removal resolution against Deputy Speaker. In the voting 45 votes came in favour and 38 votes came in against. Three members didn’t vote. Now what will happen?
a) Resolution will be passed.
b) Resolution will not be passed.
c) Speaker will exercise the power of casting vote.
d) There shall be revoting.
69. What is correct about Sarpanch?
i. He may be removed from his office by no-confidence motion.
ii. He may be recalled.
iii. On demand of members if Sarpanch doesn’t arrange the meeting of Gram Panchayat, he can be removed.
iv. If he fails to fulfill the quorum in Gram Sabha for three times, he may be removed.
Choose the correct answer:
a) i
b) i ii
c) i ii iii
d) i ii iii iv
70. Which of these is unmatched in Revenue Administration?
a) Collector
b) Deputy Collector
c) Sub-Divisional Officer (Revenue)
d) Tahsildar
71. In which matter the Governor is supposed to act as the advice of Chief Minister?
a) To refer a bill to the President
b) To send report to the centre about the State Administrative Machinery
c) Distribution of Portfolios among the ministers
d) Objection on the bills passed by State Legislative Assembly
72. What is correct about Chhattisgarh Panchayati Raj Act, 1993?
a) In the Act, there are 13 chapters, 133 sections and 4 schedules.
b) In the Act, there are 14 chapters, 120 sections and 3 schedules.
c) In the Act, there are 15 chapters, 132 sections and 4 schedules.
d) In the Act, there are 16 chapters, 125 sections and 5 schedules.
73. What is correct about Gram Sabha in scheduled area?
i. There will be one gram Sabha in each village.
ii. There may be more than one gram Sabha in a village.
iii. Quorum of gram Sabha is fulfilled by 1/3 of total members.
iv. Quorum of gram Sabha is fulfilled by ¼ of total members.
v. Sarpanch presides over the meeting of gram Sabha.
vi. Sarpanch doesn’t preside over the meeting of gram Sabha.
Choose the correct answer:
a) i iii v
b) ii iii vi
c) ii iv v
d) i iv vi
74. In which level handle the drought relief planning are prepared?
a) District
b) State
c) Development Block
d) Division
75. What is correct about Janpad Panchayat?
i. Its minimum and maximum strength may be 15-30.
ii. Its minimum and maximum strength may be 10-25.
iii. Persons elected from wards become member in it.
iv. 25% Sarpanchs become ex-officio members in it.
v. 20% Sarpanchs become ex-officio members in it.
vi. Some members of District Panchayat are nominated in it.
Choose the correct answer:
a) i iii vi
b) ii iv vi
c) i iii iv
d) ii iii v
76. Population of a district is 40 lacs. In what district what shall be the strength of Zila Panchayat whereas one representative is elected on 50 thousand population?
a) 35
b) 80
c) 40
d) 20
77. Which of the following is stated by Swain Hayden as the backbone of high Asia?
a) Jasker series
b) Karakoram series
c) Kailash series
d) Laddakh series
78. In which direction rainfall deceasing in the plain area of India?
a) West to East
b) North to South
c) East to West
d) South to North
79. Which river forms deepest Gorge in Himalaya?
a) Ganga river
b) Yamuna river
c) Ramganga river
d) Indus (Sindh) river
80. In which year Flood Control Programme has been started in India?
a) 1954
b) 1958
c) 1961
d) 1963
In India, a National Flood Control programme was launched in 1953. (Likely to be scrapped! Or answer taken as 1954)
81. Which Janpad of Tamil Nadu has maximum hazardous effects of Tsunami?
a) Kanyakumari
b) Nagpattinum
c) Shivganga
d) Kuddaloor
82. What is correct about Public Account Committee?
i. 15 members from Lok Sabha and 7 members from Rajya Sabha are elected in it.
ii. Members are elected by majority.
iii. Members are elected by single transferrable voting system of proportional representation system.
iv. Any minster can become its member.
v. Chairman of this committee is elected by members.
vi. Tenure of the committee is one year.
vii. The Chairman can’t be from majority party.
Choose the correct answer:
a) i ii iv v
b) ii iii v vi
c) ii iv vi vii
d) i iii vi vii
83. What is correct about Budget?
i. Budget is approved by Cabinet.
ii. Signature of President is essential on Budget before introducing in the house.
iii. Signature of President is essential on appropriation bill before introducing.
iv. House can increase the grant-in-aid.
v. House can’t increase the grant-in-aid.
vi. If house doesn’t pass the budget, then cabinet has to resign.
Choose the correct answer:
a) i ii iii v
b) ii iii iv vi
c) i ii v vi
d) ii iii v vi
84. What is included in ‘PERT’ in the context of management?
i. Programme
ii. Planning
iii. Examination
iv. Evaluation
v. Review Techniques
vi. Rational Techniques
Choose the correct answer:
a) i iii v
b) ii iv vi
c) ii iii vi
d) i iv v
85. Who has propounded the theory of X and Y theory of motivation?
a) McGregor
b) McLeyland
c) Maslow
d) Jucius
86. Match the List-A with List-B:
List-A List-B
(Writs) (Meaning)
A. Habeas Corpus Writ i. We command
B. Mandamus Writ ii. By which authority
C. Quo-warranto Writ iii. Be more fully informed
D. Certiorari Writ iv. Let’s have the body
Choose the correct answer:
A B C D
a) i iii iv ii
b) ii iv iii i
c) iii i iv ii
d) iv i ii iii
87. Which of the following is unmatched in the context of the concept of POSDCORB of Luther Gullick?
i. Planning
ii. Programming
iii. Organization
iv. Staffing
v. Source
vi. Determination
vii. Direction
viii. Co-operation
ix. Co-ordination
x. Reporting
xi. Rationality
xii. Budgeting
Choose the correct answer:
a) i iii v ix xii
b) ii iv vii ix xi
c) i iv viii x xii
d) ii v vi viii xi
88. Arrange the Hierarchy:
i. Chief Secretary
ii. Principal Secretary
iii. Secretary
iv. Under Secretary
v. Deputy Secretary
vi. Joint Secretary
Choose the correct answer:
a) i ii iv iii v vi
b) i iii ii v vi iv
c) i ii iii vi v iv
d) i ii iii iv vi v
89. What is correct about Organization of Islamic Co-operation?
i. It is an organization of Muslim countries.
ii. In this 57 countries of the world are included.
iii. Out of 57 countries, 56 countries are member of UNO.
iv. It was founded in 1965.
v. India wants to become its member.
vi. Pakistan is elected Dy. Chairman of this.
Choose the correct answer:
a) i ii iv v
b) i iii iv vi
c) i iv v vi
d) i ii iii vi
90. Who was Antonis Marvopollas in the context of Ethiopian Plane Crash March 2019?
a) Head Pilot
b) A passenger who couldn’t travel
c) Crew member
d) Chief of Ethiopian Airline
91. What is unmatched in the context of Legislation of the following?
a) Age of voting determined 18 years.
b) A candidate can contest election maximum from two constituencies.
c) Party Defection Act implemented.
d) Candidate should declare their own criminal record.
92. What is correct about Right to Information?
a) It is a Fundamental Right.
b) It is a Legal Right.
c) It is a Constitutional Right.
d) It is a Natural Right.
93. What is correct?
i. Masood Azahar is chief of Jaish-e-Mohammad.
ii. Hafid Sayeed has been declared Global Terrorist by UNO.
iii. China has exercised the power of veto four times in the favour of Masood Azahar.
iv. China has exercised the power of veto in the year 2016, 2017, 2018 and 2019.
Choose the correct answer:
a) i
b) i ii
c) i ii iii
d) i ii iii iv
94. Which is unmatched in the decision of Supreme Court to solve the Shrim Ram Janma Bhumi Temple dispute by mediation?
i. Justice Kalifulla
ii. Shree Shree Ravi Shankar
iii. Rajeev Dhawan
iv. Swami Agnivesh
Choose the correct answer:
a) i
b) i ii
c) i ii iii
d) i ii iii iv
95. To participate in the Senior Asian Badminton Tournament (19-24 March, 2019) which player is selected from Chhattisgarh?
a) Sanyam Shukla
b) Sourabh Deewan
c) Tushar Mehta
d) Alok Pathak
96. Who was awarded Gold Medal in Javelin Throw in Chhattisgarh State Level Tournament at Para-Olympic Athletics?
a) Nidhi Chhabra
b) Sonam Rathore
c) Sneha Podiyam
d) Preeti Dande
97. Which Indian player is included in the list of 100 players declared by ESPN in March 2019?
i. Saniya Mirza
ii. Virat Kohli
iii. Mahendra Singh Dhoni
iv. Suresh Raina
Choose the correct answer:
a) i
b) i ii
c) i ii iii
d) i ii iii iv
98. What is not written in the Constitution?
i. Indian Government system will be federal.
ii. Indian Government system shall be Parliamentary.
iii. President shall be constitutional head.
iv. Prime Minister will be the head of cabinet.
Choose the correct answer:
a) i
b) i ii
c) i ii iii
d) i ii iii iv
99. What is correct about first meeting of Nagar Panchayat after new election?
i. The first meeting is called within 15 days of the publication of election notification.
ii. This meeting is presided over by a Deputy Collector.
iii. This meeting is presided over by a Tahsildar.
iv. President and members take oath in this meeting.
v. Thereafter the members elect Vice-President.
vi. In the election of Vice-President in the case of equality of votes President can exercise the casting vote.
vii. In the election of Vice-President in the case of equality of votes the result is decided by lot.
Choose the correct answer:
a) i ii iv v
b) ii iv v vi
c) iii iv v vii
d) i iii v vi
100. Match List A with List B:
List-A List-B
(Institution) (Strength Minimum-Maximum)
A. Gram Panchayat i. 10-25
B. Janpad Panchayat ii. 15-40
C. Zila Panchayat iii.10-20
D. Municipal Council iv. 10-35
Choose the correct answer:
A B C D
a. i iv iii ii
b. ii i iv iii
c. iii i iv ii
d. iii ii iv i
101. In India, there is Federal System because:
i. Decentralization of power
ii. Existence of State Governments
iii. Written and rigid Constitution
iv. Office of the President is elected.
Choose the correct answer:
a) i
b) i ii
c) i ii iii (PSC Model Ans)
d) i ii iii iv
Though elected President does not directly a federal feature, the election involves States too, therefore it should also be considered.
102. Which is unmatched in the context of Division in Party?
a) Bahujan Samaj Party
b) Telugu Desham Party
c) Indian National Congress
d) Dravid Munetra Kadgam
103. Which of these is a regional party?
i. Telugu Desham Party
ii. Aam Adami Party
iii. Akali Dal
iv. Trinmul Congress
Choose the correct answer:
a) i
b) i ii
c) i ii iii (PSC Model Ans)
d) i ii iii iv
Trinamul Congress is also a Regional Party. Refer http://www.elections.in/political-parties-in-india/
104. If the President of Zila Panchayat is suspended, then what will be happened?
a) Vice-President will act as Acting President.
b) Members will elect officiating President.
c) President in which category, a member of same category will automatically become President.
d) Senior most member will act as Acting President.
105. Who can be recalled?
i. Panch
ii. Deputy Sarpanch
iii. Sarpanch
iv. President Janpad Panchayat
v. President Zila Panchayat
vi. Vice-President, Municipal Council
vii. President, Municipal Council
Choose the correct answer:
a) i iv vi
b) ii v vii
c) ii iii v
d) i iii vii
106. Who presides over the meetings of Gram Sabha, in a scheduled area?
a) Sarpanch
b) Deputy Sarpanch in the absence of Sarpanch
c) A senior most member of Gram Sabha
d) A person at that time elected by Gram Sabha.
107. Who has no right to vote in the meetings of Municipal Council?
i. President
ii. Vice-President
iii. Ward councilors
iv. Members nominated by State Government
v. Members of Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha who are ex-officio members of Council
vi. Member of Rajya Sabha who is ex-officio member of Council
Choose the correct answer:
a) i ii ii
b) ii iii iv
c) iii iv v
d) iv v vi
108. Supposing strength of Zila Panchayat is 32. Two seats are vacant. Panchayat considered in a no-confidence motion against Vice-President. In the voting, 19 votes came in favour and 09 votes came in against the resolution. Two members didn’t vote. What will happen?
a) Resolution will be passed.
b) Resolution will not be passed.
c) On the resolution the President can exercise the power of casting vote.
d) None of these
109. If the election of Sarpanch is pending, what will happen?
a) Panch will elect acting Sarpanch from amongst them.
b) Senior most will act as acting Sarpanch.
c) Gram Sabha will elect acting Sarpanch.
d) State Government will nominate Sarpanch.
110. If difference is found among the Gram Sabha of a Gram Panchyat, then who will decide on this matter?
a) Gram Panchayat
b) Janpad Panchayat
c) Joint meeting of Gram Sabhas
d) Sarpanch
111. Election for a Gram Panchayat was held on 10th January, 2016. Its first meeting was called on 24th January, 2016. Thereafter due to some irregularities Gram Panchayat was dissolved on 10th October, 2018. For new Gram Panchayat election was held on 12th December, 2018. First meeting of new Gram Panchayat was called on 27th December, 2018. What shall be tenure of this newly constituted Gram Panchayat?
a) 10th January, 2021
b) 24th January, 2021
c) 12th December, 2023
d) 27th December, 2023
112. How the President of Municipal Council can be removed?
i. He can be removed by non-confidence motion.
ii. He can be removed by ¾ majority of council.
iii. He may be recalled.
iv. He can be recalled by majority of voters, that voting.
v. He can be removed by majority of total voters.
Choose the correct answer:
a) i ii
b) ii iii
c) iii iv
d) iv v
113. There is Parliamentary System in India because
i. Prime Minister is real head.
ii. Collective responsibility in Council of Minister
iii. Council of Minister is responsible to Lok Sabha.
iv. The office of the President is elected.
Choose the correct answer:
a) i
b) i ii
c) i ii iii
d) i ii iii iv
114. What is correct?
i. Tenure of President is 5 years.
ii. Tenure of Vice-President is 5 years.
iii. Tenure of Lok Sabha is 5 years.
iv. Tenure of Rajya Sabha 5 years.
Choose the correct answer:
a) i
b) i ii
c) i ii iii
d) i ii iii iv
115. What is correct about President-in-Council of Municipal Council?
i. There are President and seven members in it.
ii. The members are elected by council.
iii. The tenure of members is during the pleasure of President.
iv. President becomes the ex-officio chairman of it.
v. In the absence of President, Vice-President presides over its meeting.
Choose the correct answer:
a) i ii v
b) ii iv v
c) i iii iv
d) ii iii iv
116. What is correct about the removal of Vice-Removal of Municipal Council?
i. He can be removed by no-confidence motion.
ii. Removal motion can be introduced by only elected councilor.
iii. Removal motion can be introduced by ex-officio members too.
iv. The meeting will be presided over by the President of council.
v. The meeting will be presided over by a Class-I officer.
vi. He can be removed by more than half members of total members and 2/3 majority of members present and voting.
vii. He can be removed by ¾ majority.
Choose the correct answer:
a) i iii v vii
b) iii iv v vii
c) i ii v vi
d) i iii iv vi
117. From which date the tenure of Municipal Council is counted?
a) From the date of election notification
b) From the date of polling
c) From the date of declaration of results
d) From the date of first meeting of council
118. Who can remove a Councilor of Municipal Council?
a) President of Council
b) State Government
c) Collector
d) Council by 2/3 majority
119. Who presides over the first meeting of Municipal Council?
a) President
b) Chief Executive Officer
c) An officer deputed by Collector
d) A first class officer
120. What is correct about Municipal Council?
i. President can be recalled.
ii. Vice-President can be recalled.
iii. All Councilors and President take oath of the office before Sub-Divisional Officer (Revenue).
iv. The quorum of council is 1/3 members.
v. The quorum of the council is more than half members.
vi. In the election of Vice-President, President can exercise the power of casting vote.
Choose the correct answer:
a) i iv vi
b) i iii iv
c) ii iii v
d) i ii iv
121. India is a republic because
i. The pattern of government is democratic.
ii. The pattern of government is parliamentary.
iii. The office of the President is elected.
iv. The tenure of President is confirmed.
v. No such office is hereditary in government.
Choose the correct answer:
a) i ii iii
b) ii iii iv
c) iii iv v
d) iv v i
122. What is correct about Municipal Council?
i. Its minimum and maximum strength may be 15-30.
ii. Its minimum and maximum strength may be 15-40.
iii. President of the Council is elected by Councilors.
iv. Three members are nominated by State Government in the Council.
v. Each person who is not less than 21 years can contest the election of President.
vi. Each person can contest the election of President and Councilor simultaneously.
Choose the correct answer:
a) i iii v vi
b) ii iii iv v
c) ii iv v vi
d) i iii iv v
123. Which of the following can be quoted as a reason for 1991 economic crisis?
1. High level of external debt
2. High level of foreign exchange reserve
3. Political instability
4. Import-substitution policy of India
Select the correct answer:
a) 1 and 2
b) Only 1
c) 2 and 4
d) 2 and 3
124. In which year, ‘National Seed Policy’ was announced?
a) In the year 2000
b) In the year 2002
c) In the year 2004
d) In the year 2008
125. ‘Grey Revolution’ is concerned with the
a) Production of Jute
b) Production of Fertilizer
c) Production of Potato
d) Production of Fish
126. Under ‘WTO’ the agriculture subsidies which cause minimal or no distortion to trade are put under which box?
a) Red Box
b) Amber Box
c) Blue Box
d) Green Box
127. Match the following (Tribal leaders and their leaders)
List- I List- II
(Revolts) (Leaders)
A. Santhal Rebellion i. Trimbakji Dengla
B. Bhil Revolt (Western India) ii. Chittar Singh
C. Ramose Revolt (1822) iii. Birsa Munda
D. Munda Revolt (1898) iv. Sidhu and Kanhu
Choose the correct answer:
A B C D
a) i ii iii iv
b) ii iii iv i
c) iii iv i ii
d) iv i ii iii
128. A ‘Close Economy’ is a kind of economy in which
a) Only export takes place.
b) The money supply is fully controlled.
c) Deficit financing takes place.
d) Neither export nor imports take place.
129. India opted ‘Mixed Economy’ under
a) Framing of Constitution
b) Industrial Policy of 1948 (PSC Model Ans)
c) First Five Year Plan
d) None of these
130. Match the following (cities of Indus Valley Civilization and their characteristics)
List- I List- II
(Cities) (Characteristics)
A. Mohenjodaro i. Factory of beads
B. Chanhudaro ii. Dock- yard
C. Kalibangan iii. Great Bath
D. Lothal iv. Fire Altar
A B C D
a) ii iii i iv
b) iv i iii ii
c) iii i iv ii
d) i ii iv iii
131. During 1857 the following British Generals tried to quell down the revolt at Lucknow:
i. Hugh Wheeler
ii. Havelock
iii. Outram
iv. Colin Campbell
Choose the correct answer:
a) i ii iii
b) ii iii iv (PSC Model Ans)
c) i ii iv
d) i iii iv
132. Which of the following revolutionary organization had thrown a bomb in the Central Assembly of Delhi on 8th April, 1929?
a) Anushilan Samiti
b) Hindustan Republican Army
c) Hindustan Socialist Party
d) Bharat Naujawan Sabha
133. Which section of Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is to prevent the fraudulent transfer?
a) Section 43
b) Section 53
c) Section 63
d) Section 73
134. Which section of Transfer of Property Act 1882, is related with oral transfer?
a) Section 5
b) Section 7
c) Section 8
d) Section 9
135. In which of the following Upanishad the activities of the Vejapeya sacrifice have been mentioned?
a) Aitareya Upanishad
b) Taittareya Upanishad
c) Chhandogya Upanishad
d) Brihadaranyaka Upanishad
136. Read the following statements:
1. In medieval period the Ullemas enhanced the prestige of Sultans of Delhi.
2. They considered Sultan as equivalent to God.
3. They promulgated the Divine Right principle of the Sultans.
Select the correct answer:
a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b) 1 and 2 are correct
c) 2 and 3are correct
d) 1 and 3 are correct
137. According to the definition of Land Revenue Code 1959, who is not a Revenue Officer of the following?
a) Commissioner
b) Collector
c) Settlement Officer
d) Chairman, Board of Revenue
138. According to Section 29 of the Land Revenue Code, who has the power to transfer revenue matter from one district to another district?
a) State Government
b) Board of Revenue
c) Chief Secretary
d) Revenue Minister
139. Which section of Indian Penal Code has defined the offence of murder?
a) Section 299
b) Section 300
c) Section 301
d) Section 302
140. A person does not commit a crime himself rather he helps other person to commit a crime, the person is committed the offence of
a) Abetment
b) Conspiracy
c) Provocation
d) None of these
141. Optical fibre used in the communication works on the principle of —— of light.
a) Refraction
b) Total internal reflection
c) Interference
d) Polarization
142. Vikram Sarabhai Space Center (VSSC) is situated at
a) Trivandrum (Thumba)/Thiruvananthpuram
b) Hyderabad
c) Sriharikota
d) Ahmedabad
143. Computer system works on the basis of which number system?
a) Decimal
b) Octal
c) Binary
d) Hexadecimal
144. Which of the following is not a hardware component of a computer?
a) CPU (Central Processing Unit)
b) Keyboard
c) Hard Disk
d) Operating System
145. Which of the following pair of Indian inventor and invention is correctly matched?
a) Charak – Ayurveda
b) Aryabhatt – Period of one orbit of Earth around the Sun
c) Bhaskaracharya – Discovery of Zero
d) Budhayana – Gemology
146. Full name of the pollutant CFC is
a) Chloroform
b) Chlorofluorocarbon
c) Carbon, fluorine, chlorine
d) None of these
147. The Bhopal Gas Accident was happened due to leakage of gas, from the tank of Union Carbide, name is
a. Methyl Isocyanide- MIC
b. Nitrus Oxide
c. Carbon Monoxide
d. Carbon Dioxide
148. On which date ‘Earth Day’ celebrated every year?
a) 11th September
b) 5th June
c) 22nd April
d) 16th September
149. Fluorosis caused due to fluoride, which is found in
a) Food sources
b) Air
c) River water
d) Underground water resources
150. Most hazardous waste is
a) Plastic
b) Bio-chemical waste
c) Medical waste
d) None of these
Scrapped!