(Solved Papers) CGPSC 2022 Pre (Paper 1)

cgpsc pre 2022
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CG PSC 2022 Pre (Paper 1) was held on 12 February 2023. The questions asked with relevant answers are:

1. Correctly match the following:

(I)
a. Palaeolithic Age
b. Mesolithic Age
c. Neolithic Age
d. Chalcolithic Age
(II)
i. Bhimbetka Caves
ii. Burzahom
iii. Banas Valley
iv. Sohan/Soan River Valley

Code:

(a)          (b)          (c)          (d)

  1. i              ii             iv            iii
  2. iv            i              ii             iii
  3. iv            ii             i              iii
  4. i              iv            iii            ii

2. Based on findings of excavation of Harappan Civilization what are not true?

i. For all kinds of construction, same size of bricks was used.

ii. Mostly all the houses were single storey.

iii. Main roads were on average 10 metres in width.

  1. (i) and (ii)
  2. (ii) and (iii)
  3. (i) and (iii)
  4. (i), (ii) and (iii)

In Harappan Cities, standardized burnt bricks of ratio 1:2:4 found in all the sites. They were often of two or more storey, but no window faced the streets.

3. Correctly match the following:

Buddhist Councils
a) First Buddhist Council
b) Second Buddhist Council
c) Third Buddhist Council
d) Fourth Buddhist Council
Presidents
i. Vasumitra
ii. Mahakashyapa
iii. Sabakami
iv. Moggaliputta Tissa

Code:

(a)          (b)          (c)         (d)

  1. i              ii             iii            iv
  2. ii             iv            iii            i
  3. ii             iii            i              iv
  4. ii             iii            iv            i

Visit Jainism and Buddhism

4. What is not true in relation to Vardhamana Mahavir?

A. He is considered to be 24th and last Tirthankara.

B. His mother was sister of Licchavi’s king Chetaka.

C. He did not marry in his lifetime.

D. He left his body in 527 BCE at Pavapuri near Patna.

Jain traditions differ about whether Mahavira married. Visit Jainism and Buddhism

5. Which of the following is not written by Varahamihira?

A. Panchasiddhantika

B. Brihat Samhita

C. Brihat Jataka

D. Amarkosha

Amarkosha was written by Amarasimha, a Sanskrit grammarian and poet in the court of Chandragupta II (also known as Vikramaditya).

6. What is/are not true about King Mihir Bhoja?

i. He was the son of Nagabhatta-II.

ii. Kannauj was the capital of his kingdom.

iii. Arab traveller Al-Masudi gave him name of King Baura.

  1. (i) and (ii)
  2. Only (i)
  3. (ii) and (iii)
  4. Only (iii)

Mihir Bhoja (836–885 CE) (also Bhoja I) was a Gurjara-Pratihara Dynasty king. He took over for his father Ramabhadra. Bhoja was a Vishnu devotee who took the title of Divarha.

During his rule:

  • The capital was Kannauj (present-day Uttar Pradesh), which was known as Panchala at the time.
  • His son Mahendrapala I succeeded him (c.885 – 910 CE).
  • With the aid of feudatories such as Chedis and the Guhilas, he won victories over the Palas and the Rashtrakuta.
  • He was called King Baura by an Arab traveler, Al-Masudi.

7. Which of the following is are true about Vasco Da Gama?

i. Zamorin (Samuthiri) was the ruler of Calicut during Vasco Da Gama’s trip to India in 1498.

ii. In his first trip a trip Vasco Da Gama stayed for approximately 1 year in India.

iii. Vasco Da Gama revisited India in 1501.

A. (i), (ii) and (iii)

B. (i) and (ii)

C. (ii) and (iii)

D. Only (i)

Do you know!

  • In 1505, when Portuguese King Manuel I of Portugal chose to pick the first governor and viceroy of Portuguese India, da Gama was noticeably ignored, and Francisco de Almeida was appointed instead.
  • Vasco da Gama died of Malaria in India. His body was first interred at St. Francis Church in Fort Kochi and his bones were eventually repatriated to Portugal in 1539.

8. Correctly match the following:

a) Afonso de Albuquerque
b) Nuno da Cunha
c) Pedro Alvares Cabral
d) Francisco de Almeida
i. Change of Portuguese headquarter from Cochin to Goa
ii. Arrival in India in September 1500 AD
iii. Blue water policy
iv. Acquiring Goa in 1510

Code:

(a)          (b)          (c)          (d)

  1. i              ii             iv            iii
  2. iv            i              ii             iii
  3. i              iv            ii             iii
  4. iv            i              iii            ii

Important Portuguese Governors in India

  1. Francisco De Almeida:
    • He was the first governor and viceroy of the Portuguese State in India, appointed by King Manuel I of Portugal.
    • 12 September 1505 – November 1509
    • He strengthened the empire with his ‘Blue Water Policy’ i.e. to be powerful at sea instead of building fortresses on land.
  2. Afonso de Albuquerque:
    • Succeeded Almeida as the Second Portuguese governor in India
    • 4 November 1509 – September 1515
    • Conquered Goa, Malacca, Muscat and Hormuz.
    • Occupied Goa from the Sultan of Bijapur in 1510.
    • Started the First Portuguese Mint in the east, issuing gold, silver, and bronze coins based on local designs but engraved with the badge of the Portuguese kings.
    • Considered the real founder of the Portuguese power in the East.
  3. Vasco da Gama:
    • Appointed by John II
    • September 1524- December 1524
    • This became his third voyage to India
    • His tenure was short lived and he died of Malaria.
  4. Nuno da Cunha:
    • November 1529 – 1538
    • Shifted the headquarters of the Portuguese government in India from Cochin to Goa in 1530.
    • Captured Diu and Bassein from Bahadur Shah of Gujarat.
    • Also established settlements at Salsette, Daman and Bombay on the west coast and at San Thome near Madras and Hugli in Bengal on the east coast.
  5. Manuel António Vassalo e Silva:
    • Appointed as the 128th Governor-General of Portuguese India by Dictator Salazar.
    • 1958-1961
    • He was the 128th the Last Portuguese Governor of India
    • On December 19, 1961, the Indian government launched Operation Vijay, resulting in the annexation of Goa and other Portuguese-held territories.

9. What among the following is/are true about the priests who were sent to Akbar’s court to resolve his curiosities towards Christianity in 1595 by Goa Church authorities?

i. This was third mission of Goa Church authorities which was sent to Akbar’s court.

ii. This mission met Akbar in Lahore.

iii. Antonio Monserrate was included in this mission.

A. Only i

B. i and ii

C. i and iii

D. i, ii and iii

Padre Jerome Xavier, a nephew of St Francis with Emmanuel Pinheiro and Benedict Goes were included in the mission.

10. Match the following Dutch factories with their year of establishment:

a) Bimlipatam
b) Karaikal
c) Cochin
d) Chinsura
i. 1653
ii. 1645
iii. 1641
iv. 1663

Code:

(a)          (b)          (c)          (d)

  1. i              ii             iv            iii
  2. iii            ii             iv            i
  3. iii            iv            ii             i
  4. i              ii             iii            iv

Key Locations of Dutch Factories

  • Masulipatnam (1605): located in Andhra Pradesh, the first Dutch factory in India
  • Pulicat (1610): It was later fortified and renamed Fort Geldria.
  • Surat (1616): a major port city and a center for trade in the western part of India.
  • Bimilipatam (1641)
  • Karaikal (1945)
  • Chinsura (1653): located in Bengal

11. What is/are not true in relation to ‘Battle of Ambur’?

i. This battle was fought in 1752. i

i. This battle, armies of Muzaffarganj, Chanda Sahib and French fought together against Anwar-ud-din.

iii. In this battle, armies of Anwar-ud-din had to face defeat.

  1. ii and iii
  2. i and iii
  3. i and ii
  4. Only i

The French-English rivalry resulted in struggle of dominance in South India. It resulted in a series of Carnatic Wars in India.

First Carnatic War (1740-48): It was a part of global struggle of colonial rivalry between both.

Governor-General Joseph Francois Dupleix (French) captured Madras.  Admiral Edward Boscawen and later Robert Clive (English) launched counterattacks. Peace settlement restored Madras to the British.

Second Carnatic War (1749-54): Started with Battle of Ambur (1749) as main contender for the Nawabship of the region. Chanda Sahib’s forces (backed by the French) clashed with Nawab Anwaruddin Khan and after his death his son Muhammad Ali Khan Wallajah (backed by the British). Chanda Sahib was declared the new Nawab of Carnatic region. The British led a successful counter attack and won several crucial battles including Battle of Trichinopoly (1751). The war concluded with the signing of the Treaty of Pondicherry in 1754, which reaffirmed Muhammad Ali Khan Wallajah as the Nawab of the Carnatic. The French agreed to withdraw from several territories.

Third Carnatic War (1758-63): The war was part of the larger global conflict known as the Seven Years’ War (1756-1763), which involved major European powers and their overseas colonies. The war concluded with the signing of the Treaty of Paris in 1763, which ended the broader Seven Years’ War. As a result, the French ceded several of their Indian territories to the British.

12. Which of the following is/are not true?

i. Kilich Khan was also known as Mubariz Khan.

ii. Nizam-ul-Mulk defeated Mubariz Khan in Battle of Shakar Kheda.

iii. Julfiqar Khan gave Nizam-ul-Mulk with the title of Asaf-Jah.

  1. Only i  
  2. i and iii
  3. ii and iii
  4. i, ii and iii

Kilich Khan is popularly known as Nizam-ul-Mulk, also known as Mir Qamar-ud-din Khan, was the founder of the Asaf-Jahi Dynasty and the first Nizam of Hyderabad. He was originally a Mughal noble who later established an independent state in theDeccan in 1724.

He was given the title ‘Nizam-ul-Mulk’ (the first Nizam- Asaf Jah’) when appointed as the Viceroy of the Deccan by Mughal Emperor Farrukhsiyar in 1712. He defeated Mubariz Khan, the Mughal-appointed viceroy of the Deccan in the Battle of Shakar Kheda (1724), securing his control over Hyderabad.

13. Which of the following is/are not true in relation to Congress annual session in 1927?

i. This session was presided by Dr MA Ansari.

ii. This session passed a resolution against sending Indian army to fight war in China and Japan.

iii. In this session, resolution on ‘Purna Swaraj’ was adopted.

  1. i and ii
  2. ii and iii
  3. Only ii
  4. None of the above

The Indian National Congress session of 1927 was held at Madras under the presidentship of Mukhtar Ahmad Ansari, also the President of Muslim League. Decision to boycott the Simon Commission was taken and a resolution to object to the use of the Indian Troops in China, Mesopotamia and Persia was passed in this session. Resolution on ‘Purna Swaraj’ was adopted in Lahore Session (1929).

14. What are true about plasma state?

i. Particles in this state are in ionic state.

ii. Light in the LED bulb is related to plasma state.

iii. Sunlight is also an example of plasma state.

  1. i, ii and iii
  2. i and ii
  3. i and iii
  4. None of the above

Gases at very high temperatures begin to break down, resulting mixture of neutral atoms, charged ions and free electrons is called a plasma. A plasma has some unique qualities to be labelled as a ‘fourth state of matter’ after solid, liquid and gas states. Plasma is the most common state of matter in the universe. Examples are Lightning, electric sparks, fluorescent lights, neon lights, plasma televisions, the Sun and all the stars, etc.

15. Correctly match the following:

Elements
a) Silicon
b) Fluorine
c) Aluminium
d) Sulphur
Valency
i. 1
ii. 2
iii. 3
iv. 4

Code:

(a)          (b)          (c)          (d)

  1. iv            iii            ii             i
  2. iv            i              iii            ii
  3. iii            iv            i              ii
  4. iii            iv            ii             i

Si (atomic number 14, valency +4), Fluorine (9, -1), Aluminium (13, +3), Sulfur (16, -2)

16. Which of the following statements are true?

i. Small pores in epidermis of leaf are called Stomata.

ii. Guard sales present in the Stomata are helpful in exchange of gases with atmosphere.

iii. Transpiration takes place through Stomata.

  1. I and ii
  2. I and iii
  3. ii and iii
  4. I, ii and iii

Stomata are tiny pores mainly found on the lower epidermis of the leaf, which allow gas exchange in plants. In contrast, guard cells are pairs of bean-shaped cells surrounding each stoma, which controls pores’ opening and closing.

17. Arrange the following carbon compounds in the decreasing order of their melting points:

  1. Ethanol > Chloroform > Acetic acid > Methane
  2. Chloroform > Acetic acid > Ethanol > Methane
  3. Acetic acid > Chloroform > Methane > Ethanol
  4. Acetic acid > Chloroform > Ethanol > Methane

Presence of Functional Groups like –OH or –COOH contribute to hydrogen bonding, raising the melting point of carbon compounds.

18. What is are not true about among the following?

i. Audible range of sound for human beings is approximately 20 Hz to 10 kHz.

ii. Sound waves with frequency higher than 10 Hz are called ultrasound.

iii. Ultrasound are produced before main shock waves.

  1. i and ii
  2. i and iii
  3. i, ii and iii
  4. Only iii

The audible range of sound refers to the frequencies that humans can hear, typically between 20 Hz and 20 kHz. Sounds below this range are called Infrasound, while sounds above it are known as Ultrasound.

Ultrasound is beyond human hearing; used in medical imaging (e.g., ultrasound scans), sonar, and industrial applications. Ultrasound waves can be generated before the main shock waves in certain physical events like earthquakes.

19. In August 1932, British Prime Minister announced the scheme for representation of depressed classes. This was called Communal Award. Gandhiji started fast unto death in opposition to this is scheme in which jail?

  1. Ahmednagar Jail
  2. Bombay Central Jail
  3. Yerawada Jail
  4. None of the above

The Communal Award of 1932 was a decision by British Prime Minister Ramsay MacDonald to introduce separate electorates in India for different religious and social communities, including Muslims, Sikhs, Christians, Anglo-Indians, and Dalits (then referred to as Depressed Classes).

This was opposed by Mahatma Gandhi, who believed it would divide Hindus and weaken their unity and undertook a fast unto death in Yerwada Jail, leading to the Poona Pact (1932), which replaced separate electorates with reserved seats for Dalits within the general Hindu electorate. It laid the foundation for affirmative action policies in independent India.

20. Read the following statements and choose the correct option:

i. For passengers flying at very high altitudes, sky appears dark.

ii. Scattering is not prominent at such heights.

  1. i and ii both are true, and ii is correct reasoning of i.
  2. i and ii both are true, but ii is not correct reasoning of i.
  3. i is correct and ii is incorrect.
  4. i is incorrect and ii is correct.

The Earth’s atmosphere scatters sunlight, which gives the sky its blue color at lower altitudes. Scattering, particularly Rayleigh scattering, is responsible for the blue color of the sky. It occurs when sunlight interacts with molecules in the atmosphere.

21. What is not true in relation to the Charter Act, 1813?

  1. It allowed Christian Missionaries to come to India for the purpose of enlightenment.
  2. It asserted the sovereignty of the British crown over the company’s territories in India.
  3. This Act abolished the trade monopoly of East India Company including its tea trade.
  4. None of the above

Charter Act (1833): Strengthening British Control

  • The East India Company lost its monopoly over Indian trade, except in tea and trade with China.
  • The Act allowed Christian missionaries to enter India and spread education and religion.
  • It allocated ₹1 lakh annually for Indian education—an early step toward formal education policy.

22. What are true about constituent assembly?

i. Constituent Assembly’s first meeting was held on 9th December 1946.

ii. Its first permanent president was Dr Sachidanand Sinha.

iii. Muslim League boycotted first meeting of constituent assembly.

  1. i, ii and iii
  2. i and iii
  3. i and ii
  4. None of the above

The Constituent Assembly of India was established to draft the country’s constitution, created under the Cabinet Mission Plan (1946). The first meeting of the Constituent Assembly of India was held on 9 December 1946 in New Delhi. Sachchidananda Sinha, the oldest member, was appointed as the temporary chairman.The Muslim League refused to participate, demanding a separate nation. Later, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the permanent President, and Harendra Kumar Mookerjee became the Vice President

23. By which Constitutional Amendment, minimum age for voting rights was reduced from 21 years to 18 years in 1989?

A. 61st Constitutional Amendment Act

B. 62nd Constitutional Amendment Act

C. 63rd Constitutional Amendment Act

D. 64th Constitutional Amendment Act

61st Constitutional Amendment Act 1988 lowered the minimum voting age from 21 years to 18 years. It modified Article 326, which governs elections based on adult suffrage.

24. Correctly match the following:

(I)
a) Cultural and educational rights
b) Right to constitutional remedies
c) Right against exploitation
d) Right to equality
(II)
i. Articles 14-18
ii. Articles 23-24
iii. Articles 32
iv. Articles 29-30

Code:

(a)          (b)          (c)          (d)

  1. iv            iii            i              ii
  2. iii            iv            ii             i
  3. iii            iv            i              ii
  4. iv            iii            ii             i

Visit Fundamental Rights

25. What is/are true among the following?

i. By 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments, Three Tier Governance System was introduced in the constitution.

ii. This system was copied from the Constitution of Australia.

iii. 74th constitutional amendment Act is related to giving constitutional recognition to Panchayats.

  1. i, ii and iii
  2. i and iii
  3. i and ii
  4. None of the above

In the time of the Rig-Veda (1700 BC), evidence suggests that self-governing village bodies called ‘sabhas’ existed. With the passage of time, these bodies became panchayats (council of five persons). Visit Panchayats and Municipalities

26. The 100th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2015 was brought for exchange of territories between India and Bangladesh. What is not true in reference to this?

  1. Under these. India transferred 51 enclaves to Bangladesh whereas Bangladesh transferred 111 enclaves to India.
  2. Under this, 6.1 km un-demarcated boundary land was demarcated.
  3. Due to this, territories of four States got changed.
  4. None of the above

It was enacted to implement the India-Bangladesh Land Boundary Agreement (LBA), which facilitated the exchange of enclaves between the two countries. India transferred 111 enclaves (covering 17,160 acres) to Bangladesh, while Bangladesh transferred 51 enclaves (covering 7,110 acres) to India. The agreement impacted West Bengal, Assam, Meghalaya, and Tripura, where the exchanged enclaves were located.

27. Who among the following was a not the member of Reorganization Commission which was formed in 1953 and whose recommendations were taken into account for the States Reorganization Act, 1956?

  1. Pattabhi Sitaramayya
  2. Fazl Ali
  3. K M Panikkar
  4. H N Kunzru

It was chaired by Justice Fazal Ali, with K.M. Panikkar and H.N. Kunzru as its other members.

28. Provision for Discretionary Grant which may be given by the Central Government to States, is given under which article of the Constitution?

  1. Article 275
  2. Article 281
  3. Article 282
  4. Article 228

Article 282 of the Indian Constitution allows both the Union and State governments to make grants for any public purpose, even if the purpose is beyond their legislative competence.

29. What is not true in relation to election of President?

  1. Provision for process of election of President is described in Article 55 of Indian Constitution.
  2. At nomination stage, a candidate has to submit the signed list of 50 proposers and 50 seconders.
  3. Value of votes of members of State Legislature is based on the population of respective states and it’s based on 1971 census data.
  4. None of the above

These proposers and seconders must be members of the electoral college, which includes MPs and MLAs. Additionally, the candidate must submit a security deposit of ₹15,000, which was increased from ₹5,000 earlier.

30. If any member of Parliament is elected for any state Legislature within how many days, he has to resign from the State Legislature otherwise his membership of parliament will become void?
A. 10 days

B. 14 days

C. 30 days

D. None of the above

According to Article 101(2) of the Indian Constitution and the Prohibition of Simultaneous Membership Rules, 1950 ensures that an individual does not hold positions in both the State Legislature and Parliament simultaneously.

31. Arrange the following states in decreasing order of the number of seats of Rajya Sabha:

  1. Gujarat > Karnataka > Kerala > Odisha
  2. Karnataka > Gujarat > Kerala > Odisha
  3. Karnataka > Gujarat > Odisha > Kerala
  4. Gujarat > Karnataka > Odisha > Kerala

States with Rajya Sabha Seats:

StateSeatsStateSeats
Uttar Pradesh31Telangana7
Maharashtra19Jharkhand6
Tamil Nadu18Chhattisgarh5
Bihar16Haryana5
West Bengal16Himachal Pradesh3
Karnataka12Uttarakhand3
Andhra Pradesh11Arunachal Pradesh1
Gujarat11Goa1
Madhya Pradesh11Manipur1
Odisha10Meghalaya1
Rajasthan10Mizoram1
Kerala9Nagaland1
Assam7Sikkim1
Punjab7Tripura1

32. Correctly match the following:

(I)
a. North-Western Himalayas
b. Himachal and Uttarakhand Himalaya
c. Darjeeling and Sikkim Himalaya
d. Arunachal Himalaya
(II)
i. Zaskar
ii. Shivalik Range
iii. Namcha Barwa
iv. Lepcha Tribe

Code:

(a)          (b)          (c)          (d)

  1. i              ii             iii            iv
  2. ii             i              iii            iv
  3. ii             i              iv            iii
  4. i              ii             iv            iii

33. What are not true about the Peninsular Plateau?

i. Height of this plateau is approximately 1000-1500 meters.

ii. Height of this part of generally decreases from West to East.

iii. On its East, there are Gir Ranges and on the West, there are Rajmahal Hills.

  1. i and ii
  2. ii and iii
  3. i and iii
  4. None of the above

The average elevation of Peninsular Plateau ranges from 600 to 900 meters.

34. What are true in relation to jet stream?

i. Jet stream blow across Asian continent at latitudes north of Himalaya parallel to Tibetan Highlands.

ii. Tibetan highland divides Jet stream into north and south branches.

iii. The northern branches of jet stream play important role in winter weather in India.

  1. i and ii
  2. i and iii
  3. i, ii and iii
  4. None of the above

The Tibetan Plateau acts as a barrier, splitting the subtropical westerly jet stream into two branches—one flowing north of Tibet and the other south of the Himalayas. The southern branch influences India’s winter weather patterns.

35. Arrange the following biosphere reserves in decreasing order of their geographical area:

  1. Panchmarhi > Khangchendzonga > Panna > Nanda Devi > Agasthyamalai
  2. Nanda Devi > Panchmarhi > Panna > Agasthyamalai > Khangchendzonga
  3. Panchmarhi > Nanda Devi > Agasthyamalai > Panna > Khangchendzonga
  4. Nanda Devi > Panchmarhi > Agasthyamalai > Panna > Khangchendzonga
Biosphere ReserveLocationArea (km²)
Great Rann of KutchGujarat12,454
Gulf of MannarTamil Nadu10,500
SundarbansWest Bengal9,630
Cold DesertHimachal Pradesh7,770
Nanda DeviUttarakhand5,860
NilgiriTamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka5,520
Dihang-DibangArunachal Pradesh5,112
PachmarhiMadhya Pradesh4,982
Seshachalam HillsAndhra Pradesh4,755
SimlipalOdisha4,374
Achanakmar-AmarkantakMadhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh3,835
AgasthyamalaiKerala, Tamil Nadu3,500
ManasAssam2,837
KhangchendzongaSikkim2,620
Great NicobarAndaman & Nicobar Islands885
NokrekMeghalaya820
Dibru-SaikhowaAssam765
PannaMadhya Pradesh543

None of the given options is right. Answer should be Nanda Devi > Panchmarhi > Agasthyamalai > Khangchendzonga > Panna

36. Arrange the following soils of India as per classification of USDA by ICAR in decreasing order of their area coverage:

  1. Ultisols > Entisols > Alfisols > Aridisols
  2. Entisols > Alfisols > Ultisols > Aridisols
  3. Entisols > Alfisols > Aridisols > Ultisols
  4. Alfisols > Aridisols > Ultisols > Entisols

The classifications are based on the USDA Soil Taxonomy system:

Inceptisols – 39% (Largest soil group in India)

Entisols – 28% (Second largest, found in river plains)

Alfisols – 13% (Common in forested regions)

Vertisols – 8% (Black cotton soil)

Aridisols – 4% (Found in arid regions like Rajasthan)

Ultisols – 2% (Highly weathered soils)

Mollisols – 0.4% (Least common)

37. Read the following statements and choose the correct option:

i. Moving away from the sea, force of tropical cyclone decreases.

ii. Tropical cyclone gets its energy from release of latent heat on account of condensation of moisture that wind gathers after moving over the ocean which decreases as it moves away from the sea.

  1. i and ii both are true, and ii is correct reasoning of i.
  2. i and ii both are true, and ii is not correct reasoning of i.
  3. i is true, but ii is false.
  4. i and ii is both are false.

38. Match the crops shown in Column I to states given in Column II, where they are grown maximum:

Column I (Crops)
a. Ragi
b. Bazra
c. Jowar
d. Urad
Column II (States)
i. Karnataka
ii. Maharashtra
iii. Rajasthan
iv. Madhya Pradesh

Code:

(a)          (b)          (c)          (d)

  1. i              ii             iii            iv
  2. i              iii            ii             iv
  3. iii            iv            ii             i
  4. i              iv            iii            ii

Ragi (Karnataka), Bazra (Rajasthan), Jowar (Maharashtra), Urad (Madhya Pradesh)

39. Which of the following statements is not true?

  1. On the basis of wind power installed capacity, India ranks fourth in the world.
  2. Power installed capacity of India is about 400 GW.
  3. Among the Indian States, maximum wind power potential (at 100 meter above ground level) is in Gujarat.
  4. None of the above

India ranks fourth globally in installed wind power capacity, following China, the United States, and Germany. As of March 2025, India’s total installed wind power capacity stands at 50 GW.

40. What is/are true in reference to QUAD group?

i. First summit of leaders of QUAD Group was held in 2017.

ii. QUAD 2022 summit was held on 24th April in Tokyo.

iii. Initiative on Pacific Partnership for maritime domain awareness (IMPDA) was announced in QUAD 2022 Summit.

  1. i and iii
  2. i and ii
  3. Only iii
  4. i, ii and iii

The Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (QUAD) is a strategic forum comprising India, the United States, Japan, and Australia. Its First Summit was held on March 12, 2021 virtually. The QUAD Leaders’ Summit 2022 took place on 24 May 2022 in Tokyo, Japan. The Indo-Pacific Maritime Domain Awareness (IPMDA) is a Quad-led initiative launched during the Quad Leaders’ Summit in Tokyo.

41. What are true in relation to 44th Chess Olympiad 2022 which was held in Chennai?

i. 188 in open category and 162 teams in women category participated.

ii. Total 6 teams from India participated in this event.

iii. India won Bronze Medal in open and women category.

  1. i, ii and iii
  2. i and ii
  3. i and iii
  4. None of the above

42. Where was final match of FIFA U-17 Women’s World Cup 2022 held?

  1. Kalinga Stadium, Bhubaneshwar
  2. Pt. Jawaharlal Nahru Stadium, Margao
  3. DY Patil Stadium, Navi Mumbai
  4. None of the above

43. What is/are true in relation to Padma Vibhushan Award given in 2022?

i. Total four people were given the award.

ii. In total two people were given the award posthumously.

iii. Prabha Atre was also given this award.

  1. i, ii and iii
  2. i and iii
  3. Only i
  4. Only iii

44. Who was given President Police Medal for distinguished service in 2022?

  1. Gurminder Singh
  2. Mila Chand
  3. Mohsen Shahedi
  4. Atul Karwal

45. What is the name of last PSLV Mission of ISRO which was launched in 2022?

  1. PSLV-C54
  2. PSLV-C53
  3. PSLV-C52
  4. PSLV-C51

46. India is hosting which annual summit of G20?

  1. 17th
  2. 18th
  3. 19th
  4. 16th

India hosted the 18th G20 Summit in September 2023, marking India’s first-ever G20 Presidency.

47. Who was awarded International Booker Prize 2022?

  1. Farah Bashir
  2. Namita Gokhale
  3. Chitra Divakaruni
  4. Geetanjali Shree

The International Booker Prize 2022 was awarded to “Tomb of Sand”, written by Geetanjali Shree and translated from Hindi by Daisy Rockwell. This novel made history as the first book originally written in any Indian language to win the prestigious award.

48. What is not true about late Queen Elizabeth II?

  1. She officially visited India twice.
  2. She was the Chief guest at India’s Republic Day in 1961.
  3. She visited India to participate in 50th anniversary of India’s Independence.
  4. None of the above

49. Choose the incorrect match:

  1. HRIDAY- Heritage City Development and Augmentation Yojana
  2. SEHAT- Social Endeavour for Healthcare and Telemedicine
  3. AMRUT- Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation
  4. None of the above

SEHAT- Social Endeavour for Health and Telemedicine

50. What is/are not true in reference to G20?

i. G20 is official group of European Union and other 19 countries.

ii. G20 has its Headquarters in London.

iii. India in reference to groups made for electing President, India is part of Group-2 which has other members as Russia, South Africa and Turkey.

  1. i, ii and iii
  2. i and ii
  3. i and iii
  4. Only ii

The G20 does not have a permanent headquarters or secretariat. Instead, its leadership rotates annually among member countries, with each host nation setting the agenda and organizing the summit.

51. Match the following in the reference of the organization of Chhattisgarhiya Olympics 2022:

a. Rajiv Yuva Mitan Club Level
b. Zone Level
c. Block Level
d. Zila Level
i. 6 Oct to 11 Oct 2022
ii. 27 Oct to 10 Nov 2022
iii. 15 Oct to 20 Oct 2022
iv. 17 Nov to 26 Nov 2022

Code:

(a)          (b)          (c)          (d)

  1. i              iii            ii             iv
  2. i              ii             iii            iv
  3. i              iv            iii            ii
  4. iii            ii             iv            i

52. In the reference to Chhattisgarhiya Olympics 2022, which statements are true?

  1. There are total 14 sports events.
  2. In Gilli- Danda event, length of Gilli is used to 10.5 cm.
  3. In the event of Gilli- Danda, two referees are there named Susiriya.
  4. Billas event was also part of the Olympics.
  1. I, ii, iii, iv
  2. Only i, ii, iii
  3. Only i, ii, iv
  4. Only ii, iii

53. Which statements are true about participated countries in National Tribal Dance Festival, 2022 of Chhattisgarh?

  1. Artists of ten countries have participated.
  2. Togo, Mozambique, Mongolia, Rwanda, Serbia
  3. Indonesia, Maldives, New Zealand, Russia, Egypt
  4. Burundi, Uganda, Senegal, Ethiopia
  1. i, ii, iii, iv
  2. Only i, ii, iv
  3. Only i, iii, iv
  4. Only i , ii, iii

54. Match the following Dances and States related to National Tribal Dance Festival, 2022 of Chhattisgarh:

Dance
a. Chirag
b. Harun
c. Dholu Kunia
d. Lawa
States
i. Uttarakhand
ii. Lakshadweep
iii. Mizoram
iv. Karnataka

Code:

(a)          (b)          (c)          (d)

  1. ii             iv            i              iii
  2. i              ii             iv            iii
  3. iii            i              iv            ii
  4. iv            ii             i              iii

Chirag – Mizoram

Harun – Uttarakhand

Dholu Kunia – Karnataka

Lawa – Lakshadweep

55. Under Mukhyamantri Bhent Mulaqat of Honorable Chief Minister Shri Bhupesh Baghel following caste(s) was/were announced to be included in Scheduled Tribes during his stay in Dongargarh:

  1. Marar
  2. Pardhi
  3. Gond
  4. Santhal
  1. Only i, ii and iii
  2. Only iii and iv
  3. Only ii
  4. Only ii, iii and iv

56. How many Vyaktigat Van Adhikar Patras were uploaded to the Bhuiyan Portal up to 4 July, 2022?

  1. 183604
  2. 283710
  3. 173604
  4. 283502

57. During Bhent Mulaqat Programme of Honorable Chief Minister when was the Bhent Mulakat Programme organized in Rajnandgaon Assembly Constituency?

  1. 20 November, 2022
  2. 21 November, 2022
  3. 22 November, 2022
  4. 24 November, 2022

58. Which Gauthan was visited by Ex RBI Governor Shri Raghuram Rajan during Godhan Nyay Yojana, 2022?

  1. Loharsi
  2. Thanaud
  3. Nawagaon (L)
  4. Chirmi

59. Match the Honours and Dignitaries given in Chhattisgarh Rajyosava, 2022:

a. Pt Lakhanlal Mishra Samman
b. Gundadhur Samman
c. Guru Ghasidas Samman
d. Thakur Pyarelal Samman
i. Amitesh Mishra
ii. Khemchand Bharti
iii. Ashok Agrawal
iv. Laxmi Prasad Jaiswal

Code:

(a)          (b)          (c)          (d)

  1. i              ii             iii            iv
  2. iv            i              ii             iii
  3. iii            iv            ii             i
  4. ii             i              iii            iv

60. As per Budget of Chhattisgarh 2022, Sector-wise components of GSDP (Current Price) for 2021-22 are the following (match them):

a. Agriculture
b. Difference between Excise Tax (Utpadan Kar) and Subsidy
c. Services
d. Industry
i. 10%
ii. 7%
iii. 20%
iv. 33%

Code:

(a)          (b)          (c)          (d)

  1. i              ii             iii            iv
  2. iii            ii             iv            i
  3. iv            ii             i              iii
  4. iv            ii             iii            i

61. Match the following provisions of the Information Technology Act, 2000 regarding e-Governance:

a. Legal recognition of records
b. Legal recognition of electronic signatures
c. Use of electronic records and signatures in government and its agencies
d. Publication of rules, regulations, etc. in the electronic gazette
i. Section 5
ii. Section 4

iii. Section 8

iv. Section 6

Code:

(a)          (b)          (c)          (d)

  1. i              ii             iii            iv
  2. ii             i              iv            iii
  3. iii            iv            ii             i
  4. iv            iii            i              ii

62. G2C in e-Governance means:

  1. Government to consumer
  2. Government to citizen
  3. Government to customer
  4. Government to corporate

63. Projects under NeGP (National e-Governance Plan) in Chhattisgarh are:

  1. State Wide Area Network
  2. Citizen Contact Centre
  3. Capacity Building
  4. Agrisnet and PDS
  1. Only i , iii
  2. Only i , iii, iv
  3. Only i , ii, iv
  4. i, ii, iii, iv

64. Which of the following are right about declared Scheduled Area in Chhattisgarh?

  1. Surguja- Entire District
  2. Korba- Entire District
  3. Raigarh- Entire District
  4. Jashpur- Entire District
  1. i, ii, iii, iv
  2. Only i , ii
  3. Only i , ii, iii
  4. Only i , ii, iv

Scheduled Areas declared in Chhattisgarh:

  1. Surguja District (Entire) (now Surguja, Surajpur and Balrampur)
  2. Koriya District (Entire) (now Koriya and Manendragarh-Chirmiri-Bharatpur)
  3. Bastar District (Entire) (now Bastar, Narayanpur and Kondagaon)
  4. Dantewada District (Entire) (now Dantewada, Bijapur and Sukma)
  5. Kanker District (Entire)
  6. Korba District (Entire)
  7. Jashpur District (Entire)
  8. Bilaspur District (Partial) – Marwahi, Gaurela-1, Gaurela-2 Tribal Development Blocks and Kota Revenue Inspector Block (now entire Gaurela Pendra-Marwahi)
  9. Durg District (Partial) – Dondi Tribal Development Block of Balod Tehsil
  10. Rajnandgaon District (Partial) – Chouki, Manpur and Mohla Tribal Development Blocks (now entire Mohela-Manpur-Chowki)
  11. Raipur District (Partial) – Gariaband, Mainpur and Chhura Tribal Development Blocks of Bindranawagarh Tehsil
  12. Dhamtari District (Partial) – Sihawa (Nagri) Tribal Development Block
  13. Raigarh District (Partial) – Dharamjaygarh, Gharghoda, Tamnar, Lalunga and Kharsia Tribal Development Blocks
Districts covered entirely in Scheduled Area16
Districts covered partially in Scheduled Area06
Districts covered under Tribal Sub Plan (TSP)28
Total Tribal Development Blocks85
Total Integrated Tribal Development Projects (ITDP)19

65. According to the British Records, which of the following Tahutdari’s was formed by Captain Sandis?

  1. Sanjari
  2. Sirpur
  3. Simga
  4. Sihawa

66. Match the following regarding Institutions/Commissions of Chhattisgarh:

a. Inauguration of Thakur Pyarela Gramin Vikas Sansthan
b. Establishment of State Minority Commission
c. Establishment of Adim Jati Anusandhan evam Prashikshan Sansthan
d. Notification for the establishment of State Urdu Academy
i. 2003

ii. 2005

iii. 2001

iv. 2004

Code:

(a)          (b)          (c)          (d)

  1. i              ii             iii            iv
  2. ii             iii            iv            i
  3. iii            iv            i              ii
  4. iv            i              ii             iii

67. Which are right about the organization of Zila Panchayat in Chhattisgarh?

  1. Elected members of the Constituency.
  2. Every member of Parliament who represents the constituency fully or partially, is a part of district.
  3. Every elected member of Rajya Sabha from Chhattisgarh who have enrolled as voter in the voter list of respective Gram Panchayat of respective District.
  4. Such members of Lok Sabha and State Vidhan Sabha whom election constituency comes under fully urban area.
  1. i, ii, iii, iv
  2. Only i , ii, iii
  3. Only i , ii
  4. Only i , iii, iv

The Zila Panchayat in Chhattisgarh is constituted under the Chhattisgarh Panchayat Raj Adhiniyam, 1993. It consists of the following members:

  1. Elected Members – Representatives elected from Zila Panchayat constituencies.
  2. Lok Sabha Members – MPs representing Parliamentary constituencies that wholly or partly fall within the district.
  3. Rajya Sabha Members – MPs from Chhattisgarh whose names appear in the voter list of a Gram Panchayat area within the district.
  4. State Legislative Assembly Members – MLAs elected from the district (except those whose constituencies fall entirely within urban areas).
  5. Janpad Panchayat Chairpersons – All Chairpersons of Janpad Panchayats within the district.

Additionally, MPs and MLAs who are members of the Zila Panchayat can nominate representatives to attend meetings if they are unable to do so

68. In Tribal Development Administration, MADA areas are:

  1. Baloda Bazar
  2. Nachaniya
  3. Kawardha
  4. Gaurela
  1. i, ii, iii, iv
  2. Only i , ii, iv
  3. Only i , ii, iii
  4. Only ii , iii, iv

MADA Scheme has been operating since the Sixth Plan for the total development of the
dispersed tribal population residing outside Tribal Sub-Plan (TSP) area, which are contiguous smaller areas having a population of 10,000 or more, with 50% tribal concentration. There are 9 MADA Pockets in Chhattisgarh:

  1. Baloda Bazar (147 villages)
  2. Gangrel (in Dhamtari District)
  3. Mahasamund-1 (200 villages)
  4. Mahasamund-2 (215 villages)
  5. Kabirdham (219 villages)
  6. Rukza (46 villages in Sakti District)
  7. Gopalpur (33 villages in Raigarh District)
  8. Nachaniya (77 villages in Khairagarh-Chhui Khadan-Gandai District)
  9. Sarangarh (100 villages)

There are areas included in the Cluster Pocket Approach (लघु अंचल) has been introduced from the middle of the 7th Five Year Plan Period in order to bring smaller areas of tribal concentration beyond the ITDPs and MADA Pockets into the mainstream of development. There are 2 Cluster Pockets Areas in Chhattisgarh: 1. Dhhurribandha (in Baloda Bazar District) 2. Bachherabhata (in Khairagarh-Chhui Khadan-Gandai District)

69. What approximate area comes under Tribal Sub-plan of Chhattisgarh according to census 2011?

  1. 78000 sq. km
  2. 88000 sq. km
  3. 98000 sq. km
  4. 108000 sq. km

Chhattisgarh covers an area of 135,194 km², therefore about 65% of it comes under TSP.

70. Newly formed district Manendragarh-Chirmiri-Bharatpur lies in which direction of the State?

  1. South-East
  2. West
  3. North-West
  4. North

71. Rihand and Mand rivers of Chhattisgarh originate from:

  1. Chilphi Ghati
  2. Maikal Hill
  3. Mainpat
  4. None of the above

72. In which district ‘Madheshwar Pahad’ is located in Chhattisgarh?

  1. Surajpur
  2. Jashpur
  3. Surguja
  4. Kanker

73. In Chhattisgarh, maximum Tin deposit occurs in the area:

  1. Mainpat
  2. Maikal Range
  3. Dandkaranya
  4. Mahandi Basin

District-wise overview:

  1. Raipur: Limestone, diamond, and quartz.
  2. Balodabazar: Limestone, dolomite, and traces of gold.
  3. Gariaband: Garnet, diamond, and alexandrite.
  4. Durg: Limestone, molding sand, and quartzite.
  5. Kabirdham (Kawardha): Bauxite, limestone, and iron ore.
  6. Rajnandgaon: Limestone, iron ore, fluorite, and quartz.
  7. Korba: Coal and mic(A)
  8. Surguja: Coal and bauxite.
  9. Dantewada: Iron ore and tin ore.
  10. Bijapur: Corundum and bauxite.
  11. Sukma: Quartz, limestone, and tin.
  12. Jashpur: Gold and bauxite.

74. Which of the following are very low irrigated districts in Chhattisgarh?

  1. Durg, Balod, Baloda Bazar
  2. Surguja, Korba, Sukma
  3. Bijapur, Mungeli, Mahasamund
  4. Narayanpur, Bilaspur, Gariyaband

75. In which of the following districts ‘Marwa Taap Vidyut Sanyantra’ was established?

  1. Kawardha
  2. Janjgir-Champa
  3. Korba
  4. Surguja

76. Reasons of maximum sex-ratio in Dantewada and Kondagaon of Dandkaranya are:

  1. Higher male death rate
  2. Absence of female feticide
  3. Inaccessible area
  4. ackward area
  1. i and iii
  2. i and ii
  3. ii and ii
  4. ii and iv

77. Which tree is found in plurality in Sita Nadi area?

  1. Bamboo
  2. Teak
  3. Mahua
  4. Sal

78. According to the Economic Survey 2021-22 of Chhattisgarh, which sector of the Chhattisgarh economy registered highest growth rate in 2021-22 at constant prices?

  1. Mining and quarrying
  2. Construction
  3. Manufacturing
  4. Services

79. According to the Economic Survey 2021-22 of Chhattisgarh, which sector of the Chhattisgarh economy registered lowest growth rate in 2021-22 at constant prices?

  1. Animal Husbandry
  2. Forestry and logging
  3. Storage
  4. Fishing industry

80. According to the Economic Survey 2021-22 of Chhattisgarh, agriculture sector of the Chhattisgarh economy registered average growth rate at constant prices between 2012-13 to 2021-22?

  1. 5.19
  2. 5.09
  3. 5.21
  4. 5.17

81. Who is the present Chairman of Chhattisgarh State Scheduled Caste Commission?

  1. Dr Vinod Khandekar
  2. Shri Ram Ji Bharti
  3. Smt Padma Manhar
  4. Shri K P Khande

82. What is the number of students beneficiaries as on Dec 2020 under mid-day meal as per Economic Survey of 2021-22 of Chhattisgarh?

  1. 28.66 lakh students
  2. 28.06 lakh students
  3. 27.97 lakh students
  4. 27.74 lakh students

83. According to the Chhattisgarh Budget Estimates 2021-22, the contribution of tax revenue in total revenue receipts in financial year 2021-22 is:

  1. 61.05 percent
  2. 62.05 percent
  3. 62.15 percent
  4. 62.37 percent

84. In the year 2020-21, which oilseed has recorded maximum production in Chhattisgarh, according to Chhattisgarh Economic Survey 2021-22?

  1. Groundnut
  2. Til
  3. Soyabean
  4. Rai-Sarson (Mustard

85. According to the Chhattisgarh Economic Survey 2021-22, the respective share of agriculture, industry and services in Gross State Domestic Product of Chhattisgarh in 2021-22 at constant prices is:

  1. 16.73%, 50.69%, 32.58%
  2. 16.73%, 50.61%, 32.66%
  3. 16.71%, 50.63%,32.66%
  4. 16.76%, 50.16%, 32.63%

86. Match the following inscriptions or copper inscriptions of the Kalchuri rulers of Ratanpur from the places from where these are found:

a. Prithvi Dev Pratham
b. Gopal Dev
c. Pratap Mall
d. Bahar Sai
i. Amoda
ii. Pujari Pali
iii. Balaigarh
iv. Kosgai

Code:

(a)          (b)          (c)          (d)

  1. i              ii             iii            iv
  2. ii             i              iii            iv
  3. iv            i              ii             iii
  4. iv            iii            ii             i

87. Which of the following characteristics is not found in the coins of Kalchuri ruler Ratnadev of Ratanpur?

  1. Gaj Shardul
  2. Singh (Lion)
  3. Gaj Laxmi
  4. Manavarkriti (Human Figure)

88. When did Raghuji dethrone the Kalchuri ruler Raghunath Singh in Ratanpur Rajya and appoint new administrator?

  1. 1940
  2. 1941
  3. 1942
  4. 1945

89. Match the following events of Bhoomkaal Revolt of Bastar with Dates:

a. Declaration of Revolt
b. Attack on Kukanar
c. Declaration of Muriya Raj
d. Arrest of Rani Subaran Kunwar
i. 4 February 1910
ii. 5 March 1910
iii. October 1909
iv. 7 February 1910

Code:

(a)          (b)          (c)          (d)

  1. i              ii             iii            iv
  2. iii            i              iv            ii
  3. iv            iii            i              ii
  4. iii            iv            ii             i

90. When was E. Raghvendra Rao become the Chief Minister of Central Provinces and Berar for the first time?

  1. 1923
  2. 1927
  3. 1929
  4. 1936

91. Match the following Forest Satyagrahas under the Civil Disobedience Movement with the date of their beginning:

a. Rudri Jungle Satyagraha
b. Podi Jungle Satyagraha
c. Tamora Jungle Satyagraha
d. Pakariya Jungle Satyagraha
i. 3 August 1930
ii. 9 September 1930
iii. 7 October 1930
iv. 22 August 1930

Code:

(a)          (b)          (c)          (d)

  1. iv            i              iii            ii
  2. i              ii             iii            iv
  3. iv            i              ii             iii
  4. ii             i              iii            iv

The Forest Satyagraha in Chhattisgarh was a significant part of India’s freedom movement. These movements were acts of defiance against British-imposed restrictions on forest access, grazing, and resource collection, marking a crucial phase in tribal resistance

Here are key dates:

  • Sihawa Forest Satyagraha – 21 January 1922 (Dhamtari), led by Babu Chhote Lal Shrivastava, Pandit Sundarlal Sharma, and Narayan Rao Meghawale.
  • Gattasilli Forest Satyagraha – June 1930 (Dhamtari), led by Narayan Rao Meghawale, Nathuji Jagtap, and Babu Chhote Lal Shrivastava.
  • Mohbana Pondi Forest Satyagraha – July 1930 (Durg), led by Narsingh Agrawal.
  • Pondi Gram Forest Satyagraha – August 1930 (Bilaspur), led by Ramadhar Dubey.
  • Rudri Navagaon Forest Satyagraha – August 1930 (Dhamtari), led by Chhote Lal Shrivastava, Nathuji Jagtap, and Narayan Rao.
  • Tamora Forest Satyagraha – 8 September 1930 (Mahasamund), led by Dayabati, Shankarlal, and Yeti Yatanlal.
  • Labhra Forest Satyagraha – September 1930 (Mahasamund), led by Alimardan Giri, Anand, and Shyamlal.
  • Badhakhar Forest Satyagraha – 1930 (Korba), led by Manoharlal Shukla.
  • Sarangarh Forest Satyagraha – 1930 (Raigarh), led by Dhaniram, Jagatram, and Kunwarbhan.
  • Chhui Khadan Forest Satyagraha – 1938 (Rajnandgaon), led by Samaru Barai.
  • Badaratola Forest Satyagraha – 1939 (Rajnandgaon), led by Ramadhin Gond.

92. When did British Government give Sanad to Mahant Ghasidas of Rajnandgaon State to be the ruler?

  1. 1861
  2. 1865
  3. 1869
  4. 1872

93. Vallabhacharya who is one of the famous Saints from the Bhakti Movement, was born in which place in Chhattisgarh?

  1. Champaranya
  2. Giraudpuri
  3. Ratanpur
  4. Sirpur

94. As per the Vayu Puran, what is the mythological name of Mahanadi River?

  1. Chitrotpala
  2. Nilotpala
  3. Kanak Nandini
  4. Mahananda

The Mahanadi River has been known by several ancient names across different eras:

  • Kanak Nandini – Ancient era
  • Chitrotpala – Dvapara Yuga (mentioned in Matsya Purana)
  • Nilotpala – Treta Yuga (mentioned in Vayu Purana)
  • Mahanad – Mahabharata era
  • Mahashweta – Kali Yuga

95. Amongst the following, which of the waterfalls is not situated in Kanger Valley of Bastar?

  1. Kudang Khodra
  2. Jhulan Darha
  3. Khursel
  4. Shiv Ganga

96. ‘Bali Barab’ a festival lasting for three months is celebrated in which tribe?

  1. Bhatra
  2. Parja
  3. Gadba
  4. Halba

97. Sohar Song is sung on which occasion?

  1. On the occasion of the birth of a child.
  2. On the occasion of Chhatee.
  3. On the occasion of the naming ceremony.
  4. On the occasion of marriage.

98. Which of the following is the main instrument used in Pandwani Folk Song?

  1. Algoja
  2. Khadtal
  3. Mandar
  4. Mohri

The main instrument used in Pandwani folk singing is the Tambura (Ektara), a stringed instrument often decorated. Additionally, Kartal (cymbals) is sometimes used to enhance rhythm

99. Match Section A with Section B:

Section A
a. Devar
b. Bharthari
c. Dadaria
d. Phadi
Section B
i. Pranay Geet
ii. Vyangya and Hasya Geet
iii. Bhiksha Mangte Huye Geet
iv. Vairagya Geet

Code:

(a)          (b)          (c)          (d)

  1. iv            ii             ii             i
  2. ii             i              iv            iii
  3. i              iii            ii             iv
  4. iii            iv            i              ii

100. What is the meaning of Chhattisgarhi word ‘Fusar Fusar’?

  1. Karaaraa Jabaab Dena
  2. Kaanaphhoosi Karna
  3. Havai Baat Karna
  4. Dhikhaava Karna

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