(Solved Papers) CG PSC 2021 Pre General Studies (Few questions from Test Series and website Topics)

cgpsc pre 2021 GS solved paper
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1. Read the following statements with reference to the Indian Councils Act (1861) and choose the correct option:

  1. As a result of this Act, total members of Executive Council of Governor General became 7.
  2. For legislative work, number of additional members could be minimum of 6 and maximum of 12.
  3. No differentiation was made between State and Central Subjects.

Which of the above statements is/are true?

  1. i, ii and iii
  2. ii and iii
  3. i and iii
  4. Only i

Topic covered in Constitutional Development of India (1773-1950)

2. Read the following statements with reference to the Indian Councils Act (1892) and choose the correct option:

  1. It was implemented on 20th June 1892.
  2. Out of total 24 members, 5 were non-government members.
  3. Members were given rights to ask supplementary questions.

Which of the above statements is/are true?

  1. i, ii and iii
  2. i and ii
  3. i and iii
  4. Only ii

Topic covered in Constitutional Development of India (1773-1950)

3. Read the following statements and choose the correct option:

Statement I: J D Dana prepared a special Geological Time Scale to indicate the geological history of Indian sub-continent rocks.

Statement II: As per Geological Time Scale, Indian rocks are subdivided into Archean, Puranic, Dradian and Aryan periods.

  1. Statement I and Statement II both are true.
  2. Statement I and Statement II both are false.
  3. Statement I is true and Statement II is false.
  4. Statement I is false and Statement II is true.

The Indian Geological Time Scale, advocated by T.S. Holland. Based on this complex and varied geological history, the Geological Survey of India has classified rock systems of the country into 4 major divisions:   1. The Archaean Rock System 2. The Purana Rock System 3. The Dravidian Rock System 4. The Aryan Rock System

The term ‘Archaean’ introduced by J.D. Dana in 1782, refers to the oldest rocks of the earth’s crust. The Archaean group of rocks consists of two systems- (a) Achaean System: Granites and Gneisses, (b) Dharwar System: First Sedimentary Rocks

4. Choose the correct chronological order of given Epochs, oldest one will come first:

  1. Holocene > Pleistocene > Pliocene > Miocene > Eocene
  2. Eocene > Miocene > Pliocene > Pleistocene > Holocene
  3. Eocene > Miocene > Pleistocene > Pliocene > Holocene
  4. Holocene > Pliocene > Pleistocene > Miocene > Eocene

The geological history of the Earth (known as geological time scale) is divided into several Eras. These eras are further divided into Periods, which are sub-divided into Epochs. Durations of each Period have been demarcated and the evolution of vegetation and animals are explained accordingly.

  1. Cenozoic Era: Age of mammals: It is divided into three periods: the Paleogene, Neogene, and Quaternary; and seven epochs: the Paleocene, Eocene, Oligocene, Miocene, Pliocene, Pleistocene, and Holocene.
  2. Mesozoic Era: Age of Reptiles: It is divided into three periods: Cretaceous, Jurassic and Triassic.
  3. Paleozoic Era: an explosion of life on Earth: It is subdivided into seven geologic periods: Permian, Carboniferous: Pennsylvanian, Carboniferous: Mississippian, Devonian, Silurian, Ordovician and Cambrian.

5. Match the following geological heritage sites with their locations:

Geological Heritage Sites                             Locations

  1. National Fossil Wood Park            i) Buldhana
  2. Shivalik Park                                       ii) Chittaurgarh
  3. Stromatolite Park                             iii) Tiruchirapalli
  4. Lonar Lake                                          iv) Sirmaur

(1)          (2)          (3)           (d)

  1.         (i)            (ii)           (iii)          (iv)
  2.         (iv)         (iii)          (ii)           (i)
  3.         (iii)         (iv)         (ii)          (i)
  4.         (iii)          (ii)           (iv)         (i)

National Fossil Wood Park is in Villupuram District and Perambalur district (TN). Therefore no answer would be correct. Nearest answer would be C. National Geological Monuments of India

6. Based on following statements choose the correct option:

Statement-I: Theory of Plate Tectonics was given by H H Hess in 1967.

Statement-II: Theory of Plate Tectonics is based on Theory of Seafloor Spreading.

  1. Statement I and Statement II both are true.
  2. Statement I and Statement II both are false.
  3. Statement I is true and Statement II is false.
  4. Statement I is false and Statement II is true.

German meteorologist Alfred Wegener is often credited as the first to develop a theory of plate tectonics, in the form of continental drift. The theory of plate tectonics is what brings together continental drift and seafloor spreading. Plates are made of lithosphere topped with oceanic and/or continental crust. The plates are moved around on Earth’s surface by seafloor spreading. Convection in the mantle drives seafloor spreading. Oceanic crust is created at mid-ocean ridges. The crust moves outward from the ridge over time. The crust may eventually sink into the mantle and be destroyed. If a continent sits on a plate with a mid-ocean ridge, the continent will be pushed along.

7. Arrange the following glaciers in decreasing order of their lengths:

  1. Biafo > Hispar > Sonapani > Bara Shigri > Drang Drung
  2. Hispar > Drang Drung > Biafo > Sonapani > Bara Shigri
  3. Hispar > Biafo > Drang Drung > Sonapani> Bara Shigri
  4. Biafo > Hispar >  Bara Shigri > Sonapani > Drang Drung
Sr. No.Glacier NameLengthLocation
1Siachen Glacier76 kmLadakh
2Gangotri Glacier30 kmUttarakhand
3Bara Shigri Glacier27.7 kmHimachal Pradesh
4Zemu Glacier26 kmSikkim
5Drang-Drung Glacier23 kmLadakh
6Milam Glacier16 kmUttarakhand
7Shafat Glacier/ Parkachik Glacier14 kmLadakh
8Pindari Glacier9 kmUttarakhand
9Chhota Shigri Glacier9 kmHimachal Pradesh
10Machoi Glacier9 kmLadakh

Likely to be scrapped! No option is correct. The Biafo Glacier is a 67 km and Hispar Glacier is a 49 km long  in the Karakoram mountain range in Gilgit−Baltistan, Pakistan. Sonapani Glacier is about 11 km long situated in Lahaul Spiti, Himachal Pradesh.

8. Arrange the following states in descending order with respect to number of large dams constructed there:

  1. Madhya Pradesh > Gujarat > Rajasthan > Telangana > Andhra Pradesh
  2. Gujarat > Madhya Pradesh > Rajasthan > Andhra Pradesh > Telangana
  3. Gujarat > Madhya Pradesh > Rajasthan > Telangana > Andhra Pradesh
  4. Madhya Pradesh > Gujarat >  Telangana> Rajasthan > Andhra Pradesh

Largest reservoirs in India

9. What is not true about commitment made by India at UNFCC COP 26 Conference? 

  1. By 2030, India will reduce in carbon emission by one billion tons.
  2. By 2030, India will meet 60% of its total energy requirement by renewable energy.
  3. By 2030, India will increase its non-fossil energy capacity to 500 gigawatts.
  4. None of these.

News Link

10. Match the following personality with their fields in which they have been awarded Padma Shri 2021:

List-I                                                      List-II

a) Sujit Chattopadhyay                   i) Art

b) Tsultrim Chonjor                         ii) Public Affairs

c) Purnamasi Jani                             iii) Literature and Education

d) Bijoya Chakravarty                      iv) Social work

(a)          (b)          (c)           (d)

  1.         (i)            (ii)           (iii)          (iv)
  2.         (iii)         (iv)         (i)           (ii)
  3.         (i)            (iii)          (iv)         (ii)
  4.         (iii)          (i)            (iv)         (ii)

Padma Awards 2021

11. ‘Fair and remunerative price’ is related to which of the following crops?

  1. Sugarcane
  2. Paddy
  3. Oilseeds
  4. Wheat

Fair and Remunerative Price or FRP is the price required to be paid by sugar mills and factories to sugarcane farmers.

12. What is the weightage (in percentage) of manufactured products in calculation of Wholesale Price Index (WPI)?

  1. 62.43%
  2. 64.23%
  3. 63.43%
  4. 60.23%

The WPI measures the price of a representative basket of wholesale goods. In India, wholesale price index is divided into three groups: Fuel and Power (13.2 percent), Primary Articles (22.6 percent of total weight) and Manufactured Products (64.2 percent).

13. What are the special drawing rights percentage and vote percentage respectively of India in International Monetary Fund (IMF)?

  1. 2.75%, 2.63%
  2. 2.63%, 2.75%
  3. 2.36%, 2.75%
  4. 2.36%, 2.57%

The largest share of 16.52% belongs to the USA while India’s share is 2.64% which is 8th largest after Japan, China, Germany, France, UK, and Italy. Covered in International Monetary Fund (IMF)

14. As per Economic Survey 2020-21, arrange the following states in decreasing order of milk production:

  1. Gujarat > Madhya Pradesh > Punjab > Haryana
  2. Madhya Pradesh > Gujarat > Punjab > Haryana
  3. Gujarat > Punjab > Madhya Pradesh > Haryana
  4. Madhya Pradesh > Gujarat > Haryana > Punjab

Milk production data

15. What is not true about virus?

  1. Virus term was coined by Dutch microbiologist M W Beierinck.
  2. Nucleic acid genome of virus can be DNA or RNA based.
  3. DNA based viruses are usually single stranded.
  4. RNA based viruses accumulate more genetic changes (mutations) as compared to DNA based viruses.

 16. What is/are true in reference to Agriculture Census (2015-16)?

  1. Small and marginal farmers are 86.2% of total farmers whereas they hold only 47.3% of farm land (out of total farm land).
  2. State-wise based on total number of farmers, Maharashtra is at third position.
  3. State-wise based on farmed land area, Rajasthan is at first position.
    1. i, ii and iii
    2. i and iii
    3. i and ii
    4. Only i

As per the census data, small and marginal holdings taken together constitute 86.21 per cent of the total holdings in 2015-16 against 84.97 per cent in 2010-11. Their share in the operated area stands at 47.34 per cent in the current census as against 44.31 per cent in 2010-11.

Out of 146 million operational holdings, the highest number of holders belonged to Uttar Pradesh (23.82 million) followed by Bihar (16.41 million), Maharashtra (14.71 million), Madhya Pradesh (10 million), Karnataka (8.68 million), Andhra Pradesh (8.52 million), Tamil Nadu (7.94 million), Rajasthan (7.65 million) and West Bengal (7.24 million). In total operated area, the highest contribution was from Rajasthan (20.87 million ha), followed by Maharashtra (19.88 million ha), Uttar Pradesh (17.45 million ha), Madhya Pradesh (15.67 million ha) and Karnataka (11.72 million ha).

17. In which of the following conditions, distance between molecules of carbon dioxide filled in a container may increase?

  1. On increasing the volume of container
  2. On leakage of some carbon dioxide gas from the container
  3. On increasing air pressure in the container
  4. On adding more carbon dioxide gas in container without changing its size
    1. ii and iii
    2. iii and iv
    3. i and iii
    4. i and ii

On increasing the volume of container and after leakage of some molecules, pressure decreases therefore distance between molecules increases. 

18. A sound wave has a frequency of 4kHz and its wavelength is 35 cm, then how much time will it take to travel a distance of 3 km?

  1. 21.4 sec
  2. 2.14 sec
  3. 12.4 sec
  4. 1.24 sec

Velocity= frequency x wavelength

19. Which of the following statements is/are true in reference to break-down of glucose?

  1. In cytoplasm, glucose breaks down into pyruvate which has four carbon molecules.
  2. Due to lack of oxygen, pyruvate gets converted to lactic acid.
  3. In absence of oxygen, pyruvate gets converted to carbon dioxide and ethanol.
  1. i, ii and iii
  2. i and iii
  3. ii and iii
  4. Only iii

The breakdown of pyruvate in absence of oxygen to give Ethanol, carbon di-oxide and energy takes place in the mitochondria. It is also called anaerobic respiration. The pyruvate is converted to two lactic acid molecules and alcohol.

20. What is/are correct in reference to Udayagiri and Khandagiri caves?

  1. It has both natural and artificial caves.
  2. Udayagiri has 18 and Khandagiri has 15 caves.
  3. Khandagiri caves are famous for Hathigumpha inscription.
    1. i, ii and iii
    2. i and iii
    3. i and ii
    4. Only i

Udayagiri means “Sunrise Hill” and has 18 caves while Khandagiri has 15 caves. Khandagiri caves are famous for Hathigumpha inscription

21. Who is the author of ‘Vsuddhimagga’?

  1. Nagarjuna
  2. Padmasambhav
  3. Vasubandhu
  4. Buddhaghosa

The Visuddhimagga is the ‘great treatise’ on Buddhist practice and Theravada Abhidhamma written by Buddhaghosa approximately in the 5th Century in Sri Lanka.

22. What is true about gallantry award ‘Param Vir Chakra’?

  1. This award can be given to an individual only once in his/her lifetime.
  2. On it medal, four replicas of ‘Indra Vajra’ are embossed.
  3. 31st December 2021, 25 people have been awarded with it.
  4. This award was instituted on 26th January, 1952.

23. Match the following embroidery arts with their related states:

Embroidery Art                                 States

  1. Phulkari                                i) Karnataka
  2. Dharaniya                            ii) Punjab
  3. Kasuti                                    iii) Rajasthan
  4. Karchobi                              iv) Gujarat

(1)          (2)          (3)           (4)

  1.         (i)            (ii)           (iii)          (iv)
  2.         (ii)           (iv)         (iii)          (i)
  3.         (i)            (iii)          (ii)           (iv)
  4.         (ii)          (iv)         (i)           (iii)

Top embroideries in India

24. Choose the correct option after reading the following statements:

Statement-I: In 1907 Congress Annual Session was presided by Rash Behari Bose.

Statement-II: In this session, Congress got divided into two groups (Moderates and Extremists).

Statement-III: In Congress’s Annual Session of 1916, two groups (Moderates and Extremists) got united. This session was presided by S P Sinha.

  1. Statement I, II and III are true.
  2. Statement I, II and III are false.
  3. Statement I and II are true but Statement III is false.
  4. Statement I and II are false but Statement III is true.

Related question aksed in CGPSC Pre 2021 Mega Online Test Series! On which of the agenda, the Indian National Congress got split in Surat Session 1907? The president of Annual Session of 1916 was Ambica Charan Mazumdar.

25. Read the following statements and choose the correct option:

Statement-I: First All India Census was attempted in 1871.

Statement-II: From 1881 onwards decennial censuses became a regular feature.

Statement-III: In forty years from 1900 to 1940, urban population increased from 10% of total population to 18%.

  1. Statement I, II and III are true.
  2. Only Statement I is true.
  3. Only Statement II is true.
  4. Only Statement III is true.

A systematic and modern population census, in its present form was conducted non-synchronously between 1865 and 1872 in different parts of the country. This effort culminating in 1872 has been popularly labeled as the first population census of India

26. Read the following statements in reference to State Reorganization Commission, 1953 and choose the correct option:

Statement-I: Justice Fazl Ali, K M Panikkar and Hridaynath Kunzru were its members.

Statement-II: Commission supported the splitting of Bombay and Punjab.

Statement-III: As per State Reorganization Act, 1956 passed by Parliament, 14 States and 6 centrally administered States were made.

  1. i, ii and iii
  2. i and iii
  3. Only i
  4. i and ii

The States Reorganization Commission (SRC) constituted by the Central Government of India in August 1953 to recommend the reorganization of state boundaries. In October 1955, after two years of study, the Commission, comprising Justice Fazal Ali, K. M. Panikkar and H. N. Kunzru, submitted it’s report. The commission’s recommendations were accepted with some modifications and implemented in the States Reorganization Act in November, 1956. The act provided that India’s state boundaries should be reorganized to form 14 states and 6 centrally administered territories.

27. Which of the following statements is/are true about previous Chief Justice of India, Yashwant Vishnu Chandrachud?

Statement-I: He was 16th Chief Justice of India.

Statement-II: Till date, he is the longest serving Chief Justice of India.

Statement-III: He was appointed by Neelam Sanjiva Reddy.

  1. i, ii and iii
  2. i and iii
  3. i and iii
  4. Only ii

Y V Chandrachud

28. Who was the Chief Justice of India for the shortest duration?

  1. Rajendra Mal Lodha
  2. S. Rajendra Babu
  3. Gopal Ballav Pattanaik
  4. Kamal Narain Singh

Kamal Narain Singh, the 22nd chief justice, is the shortest-serving, for 17 days (25 November 1991 – 12 December 1991)

29. What is not true about the 44th Constitutional Amendment?

  1. This amendment was brought in by Janata Government (1977-79).
  2. With this Constitutional Amendment, changes in 42nd Constitutional Amendment were made.
  3. Through this Amendment, first time it was made clear in Constitution that President cannot act against the advice of Council of Ministers.
  4. As per this amendment President can return the advice of Council of Ministers for reconsideration as many times as he wants till is satisfied.

44th Constitutional Amendment

30. If Vice-President of India has to discharge the duties of President of India in his absence due to some reasons, then what is/are true for such duration?

  1. In this duration, Vice-President holds the post of Chairman of Council of States.
  2. In this duration, Vice-President will get the emolument of President.
  3. If in this duration, Vice-President resigns, then Chief Justice of India will perform the duties of President of India.
  1. i, ii and iii
  2. i and ii
  3. ii and iii
  4. Only ii

31. Which of the following statements is/are true in reference to the joint sitting of parliament for passage of bill?

  1. Provision for joint sitting is applicable for ordinary bills, financial bills and Constitutional amendment bills.
  2. In no situation, Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha can preside over the Joint sitting.
  3. Quorum of 1/6th of the total members of both Houses to be maintained for joint sitting. 
    1. i, ii and iii
    2. i and ii
    3. i and iii
    4. None of these

Related question asked in CGPSC Pre 2021 Mega Online Test Series! What will be happened if President summons for the joint session of Parliament and in the meantime Lok Sabha dissolved?

The joint sitting is called by the President. The Speaker presides over a joint sitting. In the absence of the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over it, and in his absence, the sitting is presided over by the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. If any of the above-mentioned people are not available, any Member of Parliament (MP) can preside over the sitting by consensus of both Houses. The quorum to constitute a joint sitting: 1/10th of the total number of members of the House.

32. From which of the following states, maximum number of seats is reserved for Schedule Tribes in Lok Sabha?

  1. Uttar Pradesh
  2. Odisha
  3. Jharkhand
  4. Madhya Pradesh

Related question asked in CGPSC Pre 2021 Mega Online Test Series! How many seats are reserved for Scheduled Castes in the Lok Sabha? Madhya Pradesh with 6 seats reserved for ST out of total 47 ST seats.

33. Which of the following committees does not come under the jurisdiction of Lok Sabha?

  1. Committee on social justice and empowerment
  2. Committee on urban development
  3. Committee on labour
  4. Committee on health and family welfare

There are 24 department-related standing committees (DRSCs). Each of these committees have 31 members – 21 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha. These members are to be nominated by the Speaker of Lok Sabha or the Chairman of Rajya Sabha respectively. The term of office of these committees does not exceed one year. List of Indian parliamentary committees

34. In reference to the Indian Parliamentary Group, which of the following statements is/are true?

  1. It is not an autonomous body.
  2. Former Members of Parliament can become its member.
  3. Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha and Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha are its ex-officio Vice Presidents.
    1. i, ii and iii
    2. i and ii
    3. Only i
    4. Only iii

1. The Indian Parliamentary Group is an autonomous body formed in the year 1949 in pursuance of a motion adopted by the Constituent Assembly (Legislative) on 16th August, 1948. 2. Membership of the Indian Parliamentary Group is open to all Members of Parliament and ex-Members of Parliament. A Member of Parliament can become a life Member of the Group on payment of life subscription. On ceasing to be a Member of Parliament, a life member of the Group is designated as ‘Associate Life Member’. The management and control of the affairs of the Group are vested in the Executive Committee. The Speaker, Lok Sabha is the ex-officio President of the Group. Indian Parliamentary Group

35. Match the following Union Territories with their years of creation:       

Union Territories                             Year of Creation

  1. Lakshadweep                                    i) 1961
  2. Daman and Diu                                 ii) 1966
  3. Chandigarh                                         iii) 1962
  4. Dadra and Nagar Haveli                 iv) 1956

(1)          (2)          (3)           (4)

  1.         (i)            (ii)           (iii)          (iv)
  2.         (iv)         (iii)         (ii)          (i)
  3.         (iv)         (ii)           (iii)          (i)
  4.         (i)            (iii)          (ii)           (iv)

Union territories

37. What is/are true in reference to the Finance Commission?

  1. There are total 5 members in Commission.
  2. At least one member of Commission must be Judge of High Court or Supreme Court.
  3. The Chairman of Commission cannot be reappointed.
  4. First Chairman of Commission was K. Santhanam.
    1. i, ii and iv
    2. i, ii and iii
    3. i  and iii
    4. Only i

The First Finance Commission was constituted vide Presidential Order dated 22.11.1951 under the chairmanship of Shri K.C. Neogy on 6th April, 1952.  Fifteenth Finance Commissions have been Constituted so far at intervals of every five years. Frequently Asked Questions about Finance Commission

38. Which of the following is not the correct match?

  1. Central Railway – Mumbai
  2. Western Railway – Churchgate
  3. North Frontier Railway – Prayagraj
  4. South Central Railway-  Garden Reach, Kolkata

North Frontier Railways HQ is Maligaon, Guwahati. Zones & Division

39. In relation to Olympic-2020, what is/are correct?

  1. From India 121 players participated in Olympics-2020.
  2. From India number of female players qualified in wrestling was more than male players.
  3. India participated in total of 18 sports.
    1. i, ii and iii
    2. i and iii
    3. i and ii
    4. Only i

The nation sent its largest-ever contingent of 126 competitors to the 2020 Games. To date, the 2020 Summer Olympics are the most successful Games for India since its first regular Olympics appearance in 1920, with Indian Olympians winning 7 medals (1 gold, 2 silver and 4 bronze). The Indian contingent participated in a record 69 events, and earned medals across 18 athletic disciplines. No option is correct! Likely to be scrapped!

40. Arrange the following Tennis Tournaments in chronological order of their starting years (one which started earliest will come first:

  1. French Open, Wimbledon, US Open, Australian Open
  2. Wimbledon, French Open, , US Open, Australian Open
  3. Wimbledon, US Open, French Open, Australian Open
  4. Australian Open, French Open, Wimbledon, US Open

Related question asked in CGPSC Pre 2021 Mega Online Test Series! Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the major Lawn Tennis Tournaments?

41. What is not true about GNU operating system?

  1. Its full form is ‘GNU’s not Unix’.
  2. It was started by Richard Stallman.
  3. It is an open source software.
  4. It is not compatible with Unix.

GNU is an extensive collection of free software, which can be used as an operating system or can be used in parts with other operating systems. The use of the completed GNU tools led to the family of operating systems popularly known as Linux. Most of GNU is licensed under the GNU Project’s own General Public License. GNU is a recursive acronym for “GNU’s Not Unix!”, chosen because GNU’s design is Unix-like, but differs from Unix by being free software and containing no Unix code.

42. What is Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack?

  1. A computer game
  2. A cyber attack
  3. A military attack system
  4. None of these

43. Full form of NavIC is:

  1. Navigation without International Control
  2. Navigation with Indian Constellation
  3. Navigation with Indian Coastal
  4. Navigation with Indian Cooperation

Covered in Space Program in India

44. What is not true about FM (Frequency Modulation) radio waves?

  1. Frequency range of frequency modulation is lower than that of amplitude modulation.
  2. Amplitude and phase do not change in it.
  3. It was invented by Edwin Armstrong.
  4. Its bandwidth is higher than that of amplitude modulation.

FM operates in a very high-frequency range normally between 88 to 108 Megahertz.

45. What is not true about Chandrayaan-2 Mission?

  1. It was approved by Prime Minister Manmohan Singh.
  2. River sent in this mission was named Pragyan.
  3. In this mission lunar North Pole was targeted for exploration.
  4. Vikram lander was used in this mission.

Chandrayaan 3 is aiming for the same landing site in the moon’s south polar region that Vikram targeted in 2019.

46. What is the volume of each dose of Covishield Vaccine given to adults?

  1. 1 ml
  2. 2 ml
  3. 0.5 ml
  4. 1.5 ml

It consists of two doses of 0.5 ml each. Covishield FAQs

47. What is/are correct among the following?

  1. Galwan river was named after Ghulam Rassul Galwan.
  2. Ghulam Rassul Galwan was a Laddakhi explorer.
  3. He wrote a book I English named ‘Servants and Sahibs’.
    1. i, ii and iii
    2. i and ii
    3. i and iii
    4. Only i

Related question asked in CGPSC Pre 2021 Mega Online Test Series! Galwan River is a tributary of which of the following rivers?

Ghulam Rassul Galwan

48. Governments of India and Portugal have signed a memorandum of understanding to develop a National Maritime Heritage Complex in India. This will be developed where?

  1. Chennai, Tamil Nadu
  2. Kannur, Kerala
  3. Palghar, Maharashtra
  4. Lothal, Gujarat

49. What is not true in reference to Chief of Defence Staff?

  1. Maximum age limit for this post is 65 years.
  2. He is permanent Chairman of Chief of Staff Committee.
  3. He is Chairman of Defence Acquisition Council.
  4. He is member of Defence Planning Committee.

The Chief of Defence Staff is the Permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee and acts as the Principal Military Adviser ton Raksha Mantri on all tri-services matters so as to provide impartial advice to the political leadership.

50. Read the following statements and choose the correct option:

  1. Ganjam Revolt occurred during AD 1800 to 1805.
  2. Ganjam Revolt was led by Dhananjay.
  3. Revolt of Gumsur was led by Shrikar Bhanja.
  4. Dhananjay was father of Shrikar Bhanja.
    1. i, ii and iii
    2. i, ii and iv
    3. i and ii
    4. Only i

51. Which of the following has been provided in the 74th Amendment Act 1992 of the Constitution?

  1. Municipal Committees
  2. Ward Committees
  3. Metropolitan Planning Committee
  4. District Planning Committee
    1. i and iv
    2. i, ii, iii and iv
    3. i, ii and iv
    4. ii, iii and iv

Covered in Panchayats and Municipalities

52. Match the Articles related to State Legislature:

  1. Constitution of legislature in states                          i) Article 178
  2. The Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly          ii) Article 199
  3. Salaries and allowances of members                       iii) Article 168
  4. Definition of ‘Money Bills’                                            iv) Article 195

(1)          (2)          (3)           (4)

  1.         (i)            (ii)           (iii)          (iv)
  2.         (iv)         (ii)           (i)            (iii)
  3.         (iii)         (i)           (iv)         (ii)
  4.         (ii)           (iii)          (i)            (iv)

53. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

  1. Rationalization of Panchayat Statistics                  –              V R Rao
  2. Planning Raj training                                                       –              A S Trivedi
  3. Working Group on Panchayats and Co-operative –             S D Mishra
  4. Administrative Arrangement for Rural Development and Poverty Alleviation Programs –              G K V Rao


  1. (1), (3) and (4)
  2. Only (2)
  3. (1), (2) and (3)
  4. (1) and (2)

54. In the following questions, there are two statements. One is labeled as Assertion (A) and other is labeled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): The district judge is the highest judicial authority in the district.

Reason (R): The district judge has both judicial and administrative powers. He has also supervisory powers over all the subordinate courts in the district.

In the context of the above two statements, which of the following is correct?

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not explanation of Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.

55. The main force forming the principles of the procedure for the work of State Government is:

  1. Planning Commission
  2. Minister
  3. Chief Minister
  4. Secretariat

56. In the following questions, there are two statements. One is labeled as Assertion (A) and other is labeled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): The courts are barred from enquiring into the advice rendered by the ministers to the Governor.

Reason (R): There is no provision in the Indian Constitution for the system of legal responsibility of the ministers in the States.

In the context of the above two statements, which of the following is correct?

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not explanation of Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.

57. In which district, the major portion of the Chhuri Hills is distributed?

  1. Korba
  2. Mungeli
  3. Bilaspur
  4. Kabirdham

58. What is total fertility rate (TFR) in Chhattisgarh as per Fifth National Family Health Survey, 2019-21?

  1. 1.8
  2. 2.0
  3. 2.2
  4. 2.4

Chhattisgarh – Key Indicators

59. Which of the following archaeological sites is located on the bank of Mahanadi and has temples/monuments of Buddhism, Hinduism and Jainism?

  1. Shivrinarayan
  2. Rajim
  3. Sirpur
  4. Champaranya

Sirpur Group of Monuments are an archaeological and tourism site containing Hindu, Jain and Buddhist monuments. The city was once the capital of the Sharbhapuriya and Somavamshi kings of Dakshina Kosala state.

60. Where is origin place of Malger river?

  1. Bailadila Hills
  2. Abujhmar Hills
  3. Keshkal Valley
  4. Jhiram Valley

Malger river flows south-eastern side to Bailadila and joins Shabri river near village Kerlapaal, Konta tehsil.

61. The following cement factories are situated in which Tahsil of State? Match correctly.      

  1. Shree Cement                   i) Ahirwara
  2. Ultratech                             ii) Tilda
  3. J K Laxmi                              iii) Simga
  4. Century Cement               iv) Balodabazar

(1)          (2)          (3)           (4)

  1.         (iv)         (iii)          (ii)           (i)
  2.         (iv)         (iii)         (i)           (ii)
  3.         (i)            (ii)           (iv)         (iii)
  4.         (i)            (ii)           (iii)          (iv)

62. Match the mineral deposits and areas found in Chhattisgarh:

Mineral Deposits                     Area

  1. Diamond                              i) Latapara
  2. Limestone                           ii) Jagda
  3. Manganese                        iii) Jhipan
  4. Garnet                                  iv) Parsoli

(1)          (2)          (3)           (4)

  1.         (iv)         (iii)          (ii)           (i)
  2.         (iv)         (iii)          (i)            (ii)
  3.         (ii)          (iii)         (iv)         (i)
  4.         (i)            (ii)           (iv)         (iii)

63. Match the following rivers given in List-I with the place of origin given in List-II:

List-I                                     List-II

(Rivers)                        (Place of origin)

  1. Mand                    i) Ludeng Hills
  2. Banas                    ii) Sonbera Plateau
  3. Jonk                       iii) Devgarh Hills
  4. Kelo                       iv) Mainpat

(1)          (2)          (3)           (4)

  1.         (iii)          (i)            (iv)         (ii)
  2.         (iv)         (iii)         (ii)          (i)
  3.         (ii)           (iii)          (i)            (iv)        
  4.         (i)            (ii)           (iv)         (iii)

64. Answer the following ‘Janaula’:

“बिना पंख के सुवना, उडी चलत अकस |

रूप रंग इनके नहीं, मरैन भूख पियास ||”

  1. Kite
  2. Air
  3. Soul/spirit
  4. Sun

65. In what sense is the presented ‘Hana’ spoken?  Write the correct answer:

“तीन तिखार महा विचार”

  1. To ask three people
  2. To defer judgment
  3. Final decision
  4. To agree

66. What does the presented ‘Hana’ signify? Write the correct answer:

“फुटहा करम के फुटहा दोना,

पेज गंवागे चारों कोना |”

  1. To be powerless
  2. A hapless not getting any help
  3. To be careless
  4. To be blind

67. Understand this ‘Janaula’ and mark the correct answer:

“एक हड़िया, जे माँ दु रंग के पानी |”

  1. Coconut
  2. Wood apple
  3. Egg
  4. None of the above

68. From which story is the following poem quoted?

“बड़ साईताधारी लक्ष्मन जती जोगी

बारा बरस जोग करे रे भाई

सात दोहरा के भोजन पका के

बिन जोते के जमीन के चाउर

हरी मूंगन के दार पकाई

बैगन सिकुन के पतरी बना के…”

  1. Kanvala Rani
  2. Ahiman Kaina
  3. Phool KUnwar
  4. Phool Baman

69. Whose composition is the following?

“चारो डहर सवाल उगे हे,

मूड़ उचाए करगा कस |

ये ला लू के सफल किसनहा,

हर जुबान सिरजा ले थे |”

  1. Rameshwar Vaishnav
  2. Mukund Kaushal
  3. Sushil Bhatt
  4. Dr. Dadulal Joshi

70. What is/are true about Mukhyamantri Vriskharopan Protsahan Yojana?

  1. This scheme was started on 1st July 2021.
  2. Principal Chief Conservator of Forests is the Chairman of State Level Monitoring Committee formed for the implementation of this scheme.
  3. Under this scheme, for installation of High-tech Nursery for tree plantation, CAMPA fund can be utilized.
    1. i, ii and iii
    2. i and ii
    3. i and iii
    4. Only iii

Mukhyamantri Vriskharopan Protsahan Yojana was started on 1st June 2021 and Principal Chief Conservator of Forests is the state level nodal officer for the implementation of the scheme.

71. Match the following in reference to Rajya Alankaran Purashkar 2021:

  1. Gundadhur Samman                                       i) Kumari Rohani Sahu
  2. Dr Khubchand Baghel Samman                   ii) Mukesh Chaudhury
  3. Shahid Veer Narayan Award                        iii) Janki Prasad Pulast
  4. Minimata Award                                               iv) Dr Kalpana Deshmukh

(1)          (2)          (3)           (4)

  1.         (i)            (iii)          (ii)           (iv)
  2.         (i)            (ii)           (iv)         (iii)
  3.         (iv)         (iii)          (ii)           (i)
  4.         (i)           (ii)          (iii)         (iv)

72. Which of the following pairs is not matched correctly?

Important Scheme                                          Related Department

  1. Sanskar Abhiyan                                               Health Department  
  2. Mukhyamantri Swalamban Yojana            Panchayat and Rural Development Department 
  3. Mukhyamantri Suposhan Abhiyan            Women and Child Development Department   
  4. Tirath Barat Yojana                                          Urban Administration Department 
  5. Samarthya Vikas Yojana                                 Agriculture Department
  1.         (i)            (ii)           (iii)          (iv)
  2.         (iv)         (v)          (i)           (ii)
  3.         (i)            (iii)          (iv)         (v)
  4.         (iii)          (iv)         (v)          (i)

Sanskar Abhiyan Department- Nutritional scheme by Women and Child, Mukhyamantri Swalamban Yojana- Skill training scheme by Women and Child Department, Tirath Barat Yojana- Pilgrimage scheme by Social Welfare Department, Samarthya Vikas Yojana- Artificial limbs scheme by Social Welfare Department  

73. Which tribe is related to Lal Bangla?

  1. Kamar
  2. Baiga
  3. Bhunjia
  4. Pando

74. Shrine of Chang Devi is situated in which district?

  1. Surguja
  2. Koriya
  3. Surajpur
  4. Balrampur

Chang Devi Temple is situated in Janakpur, Koriya District.

75. On which of the following days the State Government declared public holiday for the preservation of rural culture?

  1. Harelip, Teej
  2. Karma Jayanti
  3. Vishwa Adivasi Diwas
  4. All of the above

76. When for the first time ‘Rashtriya Adiwasi Nritya Mahotsava’ was organized in Chhattisgarh?

  1. 27 to 29 October 2019
  2. 29 to 30 November 2019
  3. 27 to 29 December 2019
  4. 25 to 28 October 2020

77. For which reason Chendru Mandavi of village Garhbengal is known?

  1. Artist of wood craft
  2. Artist of mural art
  3. The first hero of Hollywood from Bastar region
  4. Artist of folk dance

He died recently. News Link

78. Read the following sentences and choose the correct option:

  1. Rajmata Fulwa Devi Kange is related to famous tribal personality Kangla Manjhi.
  2. The real name of Saint Gahira Guru was Maheshwar.
    1. Both are correct.
    2. Both are incorrect.
    3. Only (i) is correct.
    4. Only (ii) is correct.

Saint Gahira Guru’s real name was Rameshwar, born in Gahira village Raigarh District. He was from Kanwar tribe. Fulwa Devi Kange

79. Properly match the following:

Festival                                                Month  

  1. Aamus                                                  i). Chait  
  2. Sarhul                                                   ii). Kwaar
  3. Navakhai                                              iii). Sawan
  4. Dussehra                                             iv). Bhadon

(1)          (2)          (3)           (4)

  1.         (iv)         (iii)          (ii)           (i)
  2.         (i)            (ii)           (iv)         (iii)         
  3.         (iii)         (i)           (iv)         (ii)
  4.         (iii)          (iv)         (ii)           (i)

80. Match the following tribes according to their main area of residence (district):

Tribes                                   Main Area of Residence (District)  

  1. Hill Korva                                             i). Balodabazar-Bhatapara
  2. Bhunjia                                                 ii). Jashpur
  3. Binjhwar                                              iii). Gariyaband
  4. Abujhmaria                                         iv). Narayanpur

(1)          (2)          (3)           (4)

  1.         (i)            (iii)          (iv)         (ii)
  2.         (iii)          (i)            (ii)           (iv)
  3.         (ii)           (iii)          (i)            (iv)
  4.         (iv)         (iii)         (i)           (ii)

Tribes and their locations

81.  Match correctly the names of the following Rulers with their Dynasties:

Ruler                                     Dynasty  

  1. Kanhardeva                        i). Nal Vansh
  2. Skandvarman                    ii). Sharabhpuriya Vansh
  3. Durgraj                                 iii). Pandu Vansh
  4. Harshgupta                         iv). Chhindak Nag Vansh

(1)          (2)          (3)           (4)

  1.         (i)            (ii)           (iv)         (iii)
  2.         (iv)         (ii)           (iii)          (i)
  3.         (iv)         (i)           (ii)          (iii)
  4.         (ii)           (iii)          (iv)         (i)

82. Arrange in chronological order the names of Maratha Subedars:

  1. Keshav Govind
  2. Yadurao (Yadavrao) Divakar
  3. Vithal Dinkar
  4. Bhika Gopal

Choose the right option:

  1. (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)
  2. (iii), (ii), (iv), (i)
  3. (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)
  4. (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)

Related question asked in CGPSC Pre 2021 Mega Online Test Series! Consider the following statement about Suba System during Maratha rule in Chhattisgarh:

83. Name of the Principal of Rajkumar College who invited Gandhiji to deliver a speech in 1933 is:

  1. Smith Piers
  2. T A Scott
  3. H M Larri
  4. L S Carry

Rajkumar College, Raipur, one of the premier institutions of Eastern India, was founded by Sir Andrew Fraser, the then Chief Commissioner of C.P. and Berar, in the year 1882 at Jabalpur. The foundation was laid to impart education to the sons and relatives of the Ruling Chiefs and Zamindars of the Eastern States, who had donated funds to establish the same. The School functioned at Jabalpur till 1894 and thereafter, shifted to its present site at Raipur. The seeding being done, the sprouting was left in the hands of Rev. G.D. Oswell, who was the Principal of Rajkumar College, Raipur from 1894 to 1910. He was followed by Mr. G.S. Carey, Mr. V.A.S. Stow, Mr. T.L.H. Smith Pearse and Mr. J.M. Gwyn were some British Prinicipals who contributed to the pre independence growth and development of Rajkumar College.

84. Match correctly the following Newspapers of Chhattisgarh with their Editors:

Newspaper                            Editors  

  1. Survoday                             i). Uday Prasad
  2. Alok                                     ii). Yadunandan Prasad
  3. Prakash                                iii). Kanhaiyalal Verma
  4. Haihaivansh                        iv). Keshav Prasad Verma

(1)          (2)          (3)           (4)

  1.         (iii)          (i)            (ii)           (iv)
  2.         (iv)         (ii)           (iii)          (i)
  3.         (iv)         (iii)          (i)            (ii)
  4.         (iii)         (iv)         (ii)          (i)

85. Match correctly the leaders who were arrested during the Quit India Movement on 9th August 1942 with their places:

Leaders                                                                Place

  1. Yakub Ali                                             i). Durg
  2. Harnarayan Bajpai                           ii). Raipur
  3. Laxmansingh Deshmukh               iii). Bemetara
  4. V Y Tamaskar                                     iv). Bilaspur

(1)          (2)          (3)           (4)

  1.         (ii)           (i)            (iii)          (iv)
  2.         (v)          (ii)           (iv)         (iii)
  3.         (ii)          (iv)         (i)           (iii)
  4.         (iv)         (ii)           (i)            (iii)

86. “Due to geographical situation, social system, arrangement of land, the existence of Zamindars in Chhattisgarh remained natural and inevitable.” Whose statement is this?

  1. Mr Jenkins
  2. Richard Temple
  3. Mr Chishom
  4. Mr Agnew

87. When was Dr. Radhabai arrested while leading procession in the Second Civil Disobedience Movement?

  1. 12 February 1932
  2. 16 March 1932
  3. 19 April 1932
  4. 13 June 1932

88. Who among the following is not associated with the establishment of National Vidyalaya of Rajnandgaon?

  1. Rajulal Sharma
  2. Padumlal Punnalal Bakshi
  3. Thakur Pyarelal Singh
  4. Baldev Prasad Mishra

89. The GDP of Chhattisgarh estimated in the Economic Survey 2020-21 of Chhattisgarh is:

Area                                      Growth rate  

  1. Agriculture                         i). 0.75%
  2. Service                                  ii). 4.61%
  3. Industry                               iii). -5.28%

  (1)          (2)          (3)                        

  1.         (i)            (ii)           (iii)         
  2.         (i)            (iii)          (ii)          
  3.         (ii)           (iii)          (i)           
  4.         (iii)          (ii)           (i)

Covered in State Finance and Budgetary Policy: Budget 2021-22 In 2020-21, agriculture, manufacturing, and services sectors contribute by 26%, 38% and 36% to GSDP respectively. During year 2020-21 likely growths in agriculture sector are 4.61%, industrial sector by (-) 5.23% and services sector by 0.75% respectively on constant prices. All India likely growths in agriculture, industrial and service sector are 3.4%, (-) 9.6% and (-) 8.8% respectively for the same duration.

90. Read the following statements related to Banas River in Chhattisgarh and choose the correct option:

  1. It originates from mountains of Manjhatoli.
  2. Kotari waterfall is situated on this river.
  3. It joins Son River near village Dembha.
    1. (i) and (ii)
    2. (ii) and (iii)
    3. (i) and (iii)
    4. (i), (ii) and (iii)

Ramdaha waterfall on Banas River is a famous tourist attraction.

91.  Match correctly the famous places in the state:

  1. Tomato Capital                                 i). Rajnandgaon
  2. Rice Research Institute                  ii). Ludeng
  3. Kishan Shopping Mall                     iii). Bastar
  4. Kosa Research Center                     iv). Labhandi

(1)          (2)          (3)           (4)

  1.         (i)            (ii)           (iii)          (iv)
  2.         (ii)          (iv)         (i)           (iii)
  3.         (i)            (ii)           (iv)         (iii)
  4.          (ii)          (i)            (iii)          (iv)

Related question asked in CGPSC Pre 2021 Mega Online Test Series! Which place in Chhattisgarh is known as the ‘tomato capital’?

92. Read the following statements and choose the correct option:

Statement (A): Very little agricultural growth (-10.9%) was recorded in the year 2017-18.

Cause (R): Many districts were facing the problem of drought in 2017-18.  

  1. Statement (A) and Cause (R) both are true and Statement (A) explains the Cause (R).
  2. Statement (A) and Cause (R) both are true and Statement (A) does not explain the Cause (R).
  3. Statement (A) and Cause (R) both are not true.
  4. None of the above.

93. In which districts respectively the maximum and minimum paddy was procured in the marketing year 2019-2020 (according to Agriculture Department)?

  1. Janjgir-Champa, Dantewada
  2. Bilaspur, Dantewada
  3. Janjgir-Champa, Narayanpur
  4. Dhamtari, Narayanpur

Related question asked in CGPSC Pre 2021 Mega Online Test Series! During 2021-22, what was the approx. total production of paddy in Chhattisgarh?

94. Which of the following statements is not true about Matasi soil?

  1. This soil is usually found at altitude higher than that of Bhata soil and lower than that of Kanhar soil.
  2. This soil is less fertile than Kanhar soil.
  3. Iron content is high in this soil.
  4. Sand content is high in this soil.

95. Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct answer:

  1. There are about 37.46 lakh farming families in the Chhattisgarh State.
  2. Agriculture sector has the highest contribution in GSDP of the Chhattisgarh State.
  3. Agriculture is kept in primary sector in Chhattisgarh State.
    1. Only (i) and (ii)
    2. Only (ii) and (iii)
    3. Only (i) and (iii)
    4. Only (i)

Covered in State Finance and Budgetary Policy: Budget 2021-22 In 2020-21, agriculture, manufacturing, and services sectors contribute by 26%, 38% and 36% to GSDP respectively.

There are around 37.46 Lakh farm families in the state, with about 80% farmers falling under Small & Marginal category.

96. Which of the following statements is/are true?

  1. After weakening of power of Satavahana Dynasty, Vakataka Dynasty established its kingdom.
  2. First king of Vakataka Dynasty was Pravar Sen (First).
  3. Vidhya Shakti was the son of Pravar Sen.
    1. (i), (ii) and (iii)
    2. (i) and (ii)
    3. Only (i)
    4. None of these

97. Which variety of paddy of Chhattisgarh has been granted Geographical Index Tag (GI Tag)?

  1. Badshah Bhog
  2. Dubraj
  3. Jeeraphool
  4. Tarun Bhog

Asked in CGPSC Pre 2021 Mega Online Test Series! Consider the following varieties of paddy grown in Chhattisgarh 1. Jeeraful 2. Dubraj 3. Chandrahasini Which of them has gor GI Tag:

Nagri Dubraj’ is the second crop of the state of Chhattisgarh to receive GI tag after Jeeraful. The origin of the city Dubraj is believed to be from the Shringi Rishi Ashram area of Sihawa. It is also described in Valmiki Ramayana. A Geographical Indication (GI) tag is a form of intellectual property, a certification given to certain goods or products from a particular area or state, or country that is unique to a particular geographical region. It is an indication or symbol to identify a particular product.

98. The State Government controls over urban local bodies:

  1. In legislative matters
  2. In financial matters
  3. In personnel matters
  4. In respect of citizens’ grievances

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

  1. (1) and (2)
  2. (2) and (3)
  3. (2) (3) and (4)
  4. (1) (2) and (3)

Covered in Panchayats and Municipalities

99. In the following questions, there are two statements. One is labeled as Assertion (A) and other is labeled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): Municipal corporations are formed in big cities having a definite area and population.

Reason (R): Urban administrations of big cities are very complex in nature.

In the context of the above two statements, which of the following is correct?

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not explanation of Assertion (A).
  3. Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
  4. Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.

100. As per Chhattisgarh Economic Survey, 2020-21 arrange the following districts in decreasing order of Literacy Ratio of female:

  1. Korba > Rajnandgaon > Mahasamund > Narayanpur
  2. Rajnandgaon > Korba > Mahasamund > Narayanpur
  3. Korba > Rajnandgaon > Narayanpur > Mahasamund
  4. Rajnandgaon > Korba > Narayanpur > Mahasamund

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